Aviation Structural Mechanics (AM) maintain aircraft airframe and structural components flight surfaces and controls hydraulic and pneumatic control and actuating systems and mechanisms, landing gear systems, air conditioning, pressurization, visual improvement, oxygen and other utility systems, egress systems including seat and canopy ejection systems and components, fabricate and repair metallic and nonmetallic materials; perform aircraft daily, special, hourly, and conditional inspections, supervise operation of airframe work centers; maintain aircraft metallic and non-metallic structures including fuselages, fixed and moveable flight surfaces, tail booms, doors, panels, decks, empennages, and seats (except ejection seats); flight controls and related mechanisms; hydraulic power storage and distribution systems including main (primary and secondary), auxiliary (utility), and emergency systems; hydraulic actuating subsystems; landing gear systems including wheels and tires, brakes, and emergency systems; pneumatic power, storage and distribution systems; hoists and winches, wing and tail fold systems; launch and arresting gear systems; hydraulic component repair and test; and perform aircraft daily, special, hourly, and conditional inspections.
Aviation Structural Mechanics perform routine maintenance on an MH-60S Sea Hawk helicopterAviation Structural Mechanics, Safety Equipment (AME) maintain safety belts, shoulder harnesses and integrated flight harnesses in aircraft, inertia reels, seat and canopy ejection systems, gaseous and liquid oxygen systems, life raft ejection systems, fire extinguishing systems excluding fire detection systems, portable fire extinguishers, emergency egress systems, air-conditioning, heating cabin and cockpit pressurization, ventilating and antiGsystems, visual improvement systems, other utility systems and associated lines, fittings, rigging, valves and control mechanisms; replenish liquid and gaseous oxygen systems; remove and install oxygen system valves, gages, converters and regulators; inspect, remove, install and rig ejection seats, shoulder harnesses, lap belts and face curtain mechanisms; inspect, remove, install and adjust firing mechanisms and cartridges for ejection seats, lap belts and canopies; operate and maintain liquid nitrogen and liquid and gaseous oxygen shop transfer and recharge equipment; perform daily, preflight, postflight and other periodic aircraft inspections.

PREFACE

THE COURSE: This self-study course is organized into subject matter areas, each containing learning objectives to help you determine what you should learn along with text and illustrations to help you understand the information. The subject matter reflects day-to-day requirements and experiences of personnel in the rating or skill area. It also reflects guidance provided by Enlisted Community Managers (ECMs) and other senior personnel, technical references, instructions, etc., and either the occupational or naval standards, which are listed in the Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standards, NAVPERS 18068.

VALUE: In completing this course, you will improve your military and professional knowledge. Importantly, it can also help you study for the Navy-wide advancement in rate examination. If you are studying and discover a reference in the text to another publication for further information, look it up.

CHAPTER 1

MANAGEMENT SAFETY AND SUPERVISION

Chapter Objective: Upon completion of this chapter, you will have a working knowledge of the AME work center supervisor’s responsibilities for a continuous safety program.

The Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower and Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standards, NAVPERS 18068 (series), states that the AME is responsible for the maintenance of
many systems. Some of these systems are covered in this manual. Other areas that the AME1 and AMEC must be qualified in are maintaining work center records, preparing reports, and training and leadership. The training and leadership responsibilities are addressed in the Aviation Maintenance Ratings Supervisor, NAVEDTRA 10343-A1, which you should complete along with this training manual (TM).

Senior AME personnel, because of the inherent dangers involved in the duty, must be more concerned with personnel and equipment safety than senior petty officers in other aviation ratings. Because of this concern, management, safety and supervisory information is presented here as a separate chapter, as well as in other places throughout this training manual.

SAFETY

Learning Objective: Identify safety precautions for working with hazardous substances and equipment.

In the AME rating there are many ways for a careless or inexperienced worker to hurt himself or others and damage equipment. In fact, no other aviation ratings has more potential for loss of life or violent destruction of property than the AME rating. Because of the inherent dangers associated with survival equipment, AME supervisors must be able to recognize and correct dangerous conditions, avoid unsafe acts, and train others to recognize and respect the importance of safety.

Each year Navy personnel operating and maintaining safety and survival equipment are involved in accidents. These accidents result in excessive repair and/or replacement cost amounting
to millions of dollars and reduced operational readiness. The magnitude of this recurring loss emphasizes the necessity for preventing accidents, and the associated human suffering. Investigations have revealed two major reasons for most accidents with and around safety and survival equipment; (1) lack of effective training, (2) lack of supervision and leadership. The supervision, leadership, and training required for the proper operation and maintenance of safety and survival equipment are provided by the AME1 and the AMEC.

The term safety, as discussed in this course, is defined as freedom from danger. This definition covers both personnel and equipment. It does not mean that hazards will not exist (they will); but it does mean that if the hazards are known, safety awareness can and will help prevent accidents.

Safety is everybody’s responsibility, and all hands are required to promote and adhere to safety rules and regulations. This is easy to say, and it is the ultimate aim of all supervisory
personnel, but it is not easy to achieve.

The AME’s interest in safety is personal. Ask anyone about safety and they will agree it’s very important. This means everyone wants to be safe, but may feel that observing safety precautions slows down their work. Some feel they know the job so well that they don’t have to be cautious. Still others think “there will be accidents, but to the other guy, not me.”

It is these attitudes toward safety that place the burden of responsibility for safety on AME supervisory personnel. They must realize that accidents can happen anywhere, anytime, and to anyone. The AME1 and AMEC must, where possible, ensure “freedom from danger” for his personnel and equipment.

The best method for the supervisor to meet his responsibility for safety is by a continuous safety program. This program should include inspection of work areas, equipment, and tools;
interpretation of safety directives and precautions; and personal attention to personnel problems and differences.

The main objective of this chapter is to discuss the parts of a SAFETY PROGRAM that will reduce the human suffering and operational readiness losses due to aviation safety and survival equipment accidents.

ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION OF A SAFETY PROGRAM

Many supervisors feel that it is only necessary to provide safeguards, and safety will take care of itself. Safeguards are a step in the right direction, but they alone will not get good results.
To establish a good safety record requires the establishment of a good safety program. Navy directives require all organizations to have an active safety training program. The safety
program discussed in this manual is built around EDUCATION, ENVIRONMENT, and ENFORCEMENT.

ENVIRONMENTAL CONDITIONS

Environment, as it applies to safety, can be
defined as the improvement or redesign of
equipment, machinery, work area, or procedures.
The objective of the environment is the elimination
of hazards or providing adequate safeguards
to prevent accidents. The objectives are the
responsibilities of the supervisor. Briefly, the
objectives of supervision are as follows:

1.
To operate with maximum efficiency and
safety
2.
To operate with minimum efficiency and
waste
3.
To operate free from interruption and
difficulty
While these are the primary objectives of
supervision, it is important for you to remember
that your new assignment is important to you
personally. It gives you an excellent opportunity
to gain practical experience toward eventual
promotions to AMCS and AFCM.

WORK AREAS

Supervisory personnel should be especially

aware of shop cleanliness. A cluttered, dirty shop

may cause personnel to become careless and

inefficient. Look for spilled grease and oil. An

otherwise “heads-up” man could become a “tails

up” man if spilled grease and oil is not cleaned

up promptly. Notice rag storage. Oily rags should

be kept in a closed metal container. Notice

obstructions protruding from work benches and

lying on decks, or items stowed on top of lockers.

These are obvious dangers.

Less obvious hazards are poor work habits.
Are the proper tools used for the tasks assigned?
Are the established safety rules and regulations
being followed? Is the shop lighting and
ventilation adequate?

The hazardous conditions noticed by the AME
during inspections should be corrected now, either
by immediate action or training. General work
center safety is covered more in the Aviation
Maintenance Ratings Supervisor manual.

TOOLS

The inspection of tools should include type,
condition, and use. As a general precaution, be
sure that all tools conform to navy standards of
quality and type. Remember that each tool has
a place and should be in use or in that place. Each
tool has a purpose and should be used only for
that purpose.

If hand tools are dull, broken, bent, or dirty,
corrective action is necessary. Tools that cannot
be repaired should be replaced. Tools should be
cleaned and kept clean. Portable tools should be
inspected prior to each use to ensure they are clean
and in the proper state of repair. The AME
supervisor should be very critical of the tools
within the work center. For more information on
tools and their uses, refer to the Aviation
Maintenance Ratings Supervisor manual.

EQUIPMENT

The AME supervisor will have many different
kinds of equipment in his work center. The
inspection of shop equipment should include
checking for posted operational requirements and
for safeguards such as goggles, hearing protectors,
and protective clothing. Always check for leaks,
frayed electrical cords, proper working
conditions, and general cleanliness.

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The inspection of work areas, tools, and
equipment will point up hazards that must be
corrected. Some corrections will be made on the
spot, and some will have to be worked out
through job improvements. The inspections will
show the need for and the continuation of a good
safety program. For more information on shop
equipment, refer to the Aviation Maintenance
Ratings Supervisor manual.

SAFETY INSPECTIONS

About 98 percent of all accidents can be
prevented. This means that accidents can be
prevented by educating personnel to the hazards
or by completely eliminating the hazards. It’s with
this idea in mind that you will make your
inspections. During the inspection, look for
hazardous conditions that can be eliminated and
for hazardous conditions that can be corrected
through training. The two percent classified as
unpreventable are caused by natural elements,
such as wind, lightning, flooding, etc., and some
steps can be taken to lessen these hazards.

Safety inspections should be continuous. A
habit should be developed for noting everything.
Everytime you walk through the shop, line area,
around aircraft, or any area where your responsibility
extends, think safety. When a hazardous
condition is found, correct it. To put it off until
later is to gamble with the safety of your men and
equipment. The hard rule is that in matters of
safety, “corrective action is required NOW.”

SAFETY EDUCATION

Safety education depends on obtaining and
passing out safety-related information. Safety
information is gained through inspections,
experience from directives, and by performing an
analysis of job requirements. An effective safety
program creates interest as well as supplies
information.

The following examples point up the different
ways safety information may be disseminated.

1. POSTERS—The Navy provides safety
posters that should be posted in appropriate places
to emphasize the safety message.
2. PRINTED MATERIALS—This covers the
required reading list of safety precautions
pertaining to safety. Printed material also covers
physically posting operating procedures on the
equipment.
3. GROUP DISCUSSIONS—Group discussions
are usually conducted when the information
is applicable to all hands. Safety movies fall into
this category.
4. INDIVIDUAL INSTRUCTION—Individual
instruction is normally given when the
problem involves individual work habits or a
particular hazard is pointed out to an individual
during the work process.
ENFORCEMENT

Enforcement as it applies to safety is defined
as the formulation of rules and regulations and
a safety policy that will be followed by all hands.
Enforcement includes reprimanding violators of
safety rules, frequent inspections to determine
adherence to rules, and continuous follow-up
procedures to determine WHY THERE ARE
VIOLATORS. Supervisors must enforce safety
rules without fear or favor. Safety consciousness
and the will of the worker to aid in preventing
accidents lies with the supervisors. Supervisors
must not jeopardize cooperation in safety by
inconsistency in enforcement.

PLANNING FOR ADVANCED BASE
OR FORWARD AREA OPERATIONS

AME Chiefs must be able to prepare for
advanced base or forward area operations without
sacrificing the safety program. They must estimate
aircraft spare parts and supplies, equipment, and
manpower requirements for aviation structural
repair. In determining requirements for forward
or advance base operations, consider the
following:

1. Safety
2. Mission
3. Environment
4. Operating Factors
5. The availability of existing facilities
A knowledge of the material and manpower
requirements listed in the Advanced Base Initial
Outfitting Lists of Functional Components will
be very helpful. The functional component is one
of more than 300 standardized units of the system
that the Navy has developed to enable it to build
and operate its advanced bases in the least possible
time and with minimum expenditure of planning
and logistic effort.

A functional component is a list of the
requirements for the performance of a specific

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task at an advanced base. It is a carefully balanced
combination of material, equipment, and/or
personnel.

Each functional component is grouped
according to its primary function into 1 of 11
major groups, including aviation. Each major
group is identified by letter designation and title.
The functional components contained in each are
identified by a combination letter, number, and
its title designation. The major group designation
for aviation is “H.”

“H” components are designed to provide
maintenance, support, and operation of aircraft
in an advanced area under combat conditions.
“H” components may be combined with other
functional components to form several types of
air stations.

Complete information and data are given in
the abridged and the detailed outfitting lists for
functional components. It should be apparent to
the AMEC that the advanced base requirements
may not be exactly as they appear in the Advanced
Base Initial Outfitting Lists. To use these lists as
guides, it will be necessary, in most cases, to alter
or tailor them to fit the individual needs of the
unit about to deploy.

Other necessary repair parts, supplies, and
equipment may be determined from the outfitting
lists for the aircraft or other weapon systems to
be supported.

It is quite likely that the AMEC will be
required to advise the personnel office in making
assignments of individuals to advance base or
forward area operating units. It would seem
logical that the number of AMEs assigned to
deploy be in the same ratio as the percentage of
supported aircraft scheduled to deploy. This may
be true if the proposed flight hours per aircraft
of the detachment exactly equalled the planned
utilization of the remaining aircraft. There must
also be no significant environmental problems to
be overcome (i.e., excessive heat or excessive cold
conditions, depending on the location of
deployment). The list of personnel assigned to
deploy should represent a cross section of the skill
levels available unless special maintenance factors
indicate otherwise. The selection of personnel
should be made as objectively as possible so the
deployed unit can function as safely and
efficiently as possible.

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS FOR
HAZARDOUS SUBSTANCES

Learning Objective: Identify safety

precautions for working with hazardous

substances and equipment.

There are many ways for a careless or
inexperienced worker to hurt themselves or others
on the job. This section discusses safety
precautions in three hazardous work areas: liquid
oxygen, gaseous oxygen, and high pressure air.
Other specific safety precautions are discussed in
OPNAVINST 5100.19 (series).

It has been said that every safety precaution
has been originally written in blood. There is no
room for complacency in the performance of
AME tasks. Every job must be performed in a
“heads-up” manner to ensure maximum safety
awareness is maintained. Anything less can and
will be disastrous.

LIQUID OXYGEN

Aviators breathing oxygen (ABO) comes in
both gaseous (type 1) and liquid (type 11) states.
Liquid oxygen (LOX) is converted to a gas before
its delivered to the aircrew. LOX requires frequent
monitoring to prevent contamination and to
ensure safe use. A surveillance program is the
primary method of ensuring that each operation
in the LOX supply system is carried out in strict
compliance with established procedures. Surveillance
begins with procurement or generation of
LOX and continues throughout storage, handling,
transfer, and servicing of aircraft.

The best assurance of personnel safety lies in
the safety education of the people themselves. The
safety of personnel can be assured only when there
is thorough understanding of potential hazards,
the correct procedures and equipment are used,
and the equipment is in good working condition.
Knowledge of a job situation and appropriate
safety equipment is vital to successful completion
of a job. Follow established safety procedures in
NAVAIR 06-30-501.

Description and Properties of
Liquid Oxygen

Oxygen can exist as a solid or gas, depending
upon the temperature and pressure under which
it is stored. At atmospheric pressure, oxygen exists
as a solid at temperatures below its melting point,

– 361°F (–281°C). Solid oxygen turns into a
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liquid at its melting point and remains in this state
until the temperature rises to its boiling point,
–297°F (–183°C).

At this latter temperature, LOX vaporizes into
the gaseous state. Gaseous oxygen will turn into
liquid at atmospheric pressure by cooling to a
temperature below –297°F. By increasing the
pressure, gaseous oxygen can be liquified at higher
temperatures, up to its critical temperature,

– 182°F ( –119°C). Oxygen will not condense to
a liquid at temperatures above its critical
temperature regardless of the pressure applied.
The pressure required to liquify oxygen at its
critical temperature is known as its critical
pressure, 736.5 psig. The application of high
pressure and ultra-low temperatures to convert
gases to their liquid state is known as the science
and technology of cryogenics. LOX is a cryogenic
fluid.
Physical Properties of Liquid Oxygen

Gaseous oxygen is colorless odorless,
tasteless, and about 1.1 times as heavy as air. LOX
is an extremely cold, pale blue fluid that flows
like water. One gallon of LOX weighs 9.519
pounds, which is 1.14 times heavier than the
weight of 1 gallon of water. LOX is stored and
handled at atmospheric pressure in well-insulated
containers that maintain the liquid at its boiling
point ( –297°F). Therefore, LOX is boiling as it
slowly turns into gaseous oxygen. As the
expanding gas from the boiling liquid increases
in amount, it builds up pressure within the
container. Therefore, the expanding gas must be
vented to the atmosphere. Confinement of liquid
oxygen can be dangerous to personnel, causing
severe injury and death.

This section contains procedures and requirements
for the quality control of LOX that is
stored, transferred, handled, and used for
breathing purposes by aircrews. This section
applies to AME supervisors who must ensure all
safety procedures and equipment are used during
LOX servicing and handling by qualified
personnel.

Personnel

Personnel selected to perform operations in
the LOX supply system should be trained and
have a thorough knowledge of the characteristics
of LOX, the significance of contamination, and
the dangers involved. Only those personnel who
demonstrate understanding of safety and who

maintain reliable performance should be assigned
the duties and responsibilities of handling LOX.

LOX Contamination

During the handling and transfer of LOX,
environmental contaminants must be prevented
from entering the system. LOX strongly attracts
and absorbs atmospheric gases. Contaminants
make the ABO unusable. Conscientious attention
to correct procedures during handling and transfer
operations will prevent contamination and ensure
safety.

The aircraft LOX converter system should be
sampled and tested for contamination as follows:

Test for odor as soon as possible after a report
of in-flight odors by the pilot or aircrew. Any
abnormal psychological or physiological effects
to an aircrew during or after flight should be cause
to suspect possible oxygen contamination.
Possible oxygen contamination should also be
considered in any aircraft mishap when the
circumstances of the mishap are vague or
unknown. A sample should be taken and sent to
a test site for analysis with supporting details of
the incident, including history of the supply source
of LOX. Appropriate reports must be submitted
in accordance with OPNAVINST 3750.6. An
information copy should be provided to the Naval
Air Engineering Center program manager.

Applicable squadrons selected by area
commands must, during each calender month,
take a LOX sample from at least one filled
converter and residual LOX from one converter
(taken from an aircraft after a flight mission), and
forward both to a test site for contamination
checks.

Aircraft oxygen and LOX systems, and LOX
converters, must be purged in accordance with the
applicable maintenance instructions manual
(MIM) and/or NAVAIR 13-1-6.4, Oxygen
Equipment Manual. Purging is done when the
system or the converter is left open to the
atmosphere, when empty, or whenever
contamination is suspected.

GASEOUS OXYGEN

The supervision of aviators gaseous breathing
oxygen requires the same surveillance as for LOX.
Adequate and reliable supervisory control of
aviators gaseous breathing oxygen demands that
each operation in the gaseous breathing oxygen
supply, and aircraft servicing system, be carried

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out in strict compliance with procedures
established to assure safety of flight and mission
completion.

This section establishes procedures and requirements
for the quality control of gaseous
oxygen that is stored, transferred, and used for
breathing purposes by aircrews. This section is
applicable to all personnel who are responsible for
supervising or performing the operations associated
with and servicing of the aircraft with
aviators breathing oxygen.

Quality Control Requirements of
Gaseous Oxygen

The procurement limits for purity and contamination,
which include the absence of odor,
of aviators gaseous breathing oxygen must meet
the requirements of the current issue of MILO-
27210.

The on-station monitoring of aviators gaseous
breathing oxygen for contamination is performed
by a sniff odor test.

WARNING

The odor test is very hazardous due to the
high pressure in the cylinder. Do not place
your face or nose directly into the venting
gas stream and do not take deep breaths.
Discontinue “sniffing” any gas at the first
indication of irritation of the nasal passages
or at any sign of physical discomfort.
Some contaminants are extremely irritating,
poisonous, or toxic, and can cause
physical injury. The odor test can only be
performed safely if the procedures are
followed exactly.

NOTE

Persons temporarily unable to detect or
classify odors because of head colds, hay
fever, etc., must be excluded from the
assignment of inspecting for the presence
of odorous contaminants.

If an odor is detected, discontinue the
inspection process. When detected, an attempt
should be made to classify it, such as “acrid,”
“sweet, ” “rotten egg,” “glue like,” etc., as this
will help in the identification of the source of the
contaminate.

Gaseous Oxygen Servicing Trailer

Gaseous oxygen servicing carts must be
sampled and tested whenever contamination is
suspected or after the completion of any
maintenance action performed on the cart. An
odor test must be conducted prior to servicing any
aircraft system. This is accomplished by opening
slightly the valve at the terminal end of the
recharging hose and smelling the escaping gas in
accordance with the procedures described in the
A6-332AO-GYD-000. If an odor is present, the
servicing cart will not be used to service the
aircraft. Each cylinder must be inspected for the
following:

.
Proper painting and marking.

l
Valves are tightly closed and not leaking.

l
Safety caps and safety plugs are secure.

.
Hydrostatic test date is current.

.
All valves, manifold, servicing hose, and
cylinders are clean and free of grease and oil. The
presence of any grease or oil on the valves or
cylinders must be reported to the maintenance
officer for necessary action, and the servicing cart
must be placed in a contaminated status.

HIGH-PRESSURE AIR

Using high-pressure compressed air safely
requires knowledge and skills. Despite all the
safety programs and posters regarding this shop
hazard, reports of fatalities and serious injury
from this cause continue to accumulate.

High-pressure compressed air is provided from
one of three sources:

1. A portable high-pressure cylinder
2. A cascade-type servicing trailer equipped
with several cylinders
3. Direct service from a portable high-pressure
air compressor
Each of these sources is no less dangerous than
the precautions already discussed for handling
oxygen cylinders. Precautions apply generally as
well for the handling and stowage of compressed
air cylinders.

Do not fill any cylinder with a gas other than
that gas for which the cylinder has been
specifically designated. Explosive mixtures may

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be formed when cylinders containing residual
combustible gases such as hydrogen, propane, or
acetylene are charged with air or oxygen. The
reverse of this procedure is equally hazardous.

Cylinders used for aviators’ breathing oxygen,
dry nitrogen, dry argon, dry helium, or dry air
that are found to have open valves and/or a
positive internal pressure of less than 25 psi
(gauge) should be tagged “Dry Before Refilling.”

When operating the compressed air servicing
trailers, (gaseous oxygen or nitrogen) the
following precautions should be observed:

1. Only qualified operators should operate the
trailers while charging. Complete familiarity with
the trailer is a basic prerequisite for safe operation.
2. The servicing hose end and installation
connection fitting should be thoroughly inspected
prior to servicing and any foreign matter removed.
3. Never charge an installation without the
proper fusible safety plug and blowout disc in the
trailer charging system.
4. Always know the pressure existing in the
system to be filled and the pressure in all cylinders
to be used in the cascading process before starting
charging operations.
5. A malfunctioning pressure regulator should
be disconnected from the line by closing its
associated shut-off valve. The trailer can then be
operated with the remaining pressure regulator.
6. The charging hose should never be
stretched tightly to reach a connection. Position
the trailer so that the servicing hose is not under
tension while charging.
7. Always open all valves slowly. The dangers
of rapid cascade charging must be avoided.
Compressed air should never be blown towards
anyone, used for cleaning of personal clothing,
or as a means of cooling off a person.
SAFETY PRECAUTIONS FOR
EJECTION SEATS AND EXPLOSIVE
DEVICES

Learning Objective: Identify the

importance of the ejection seat check-out

program.

Ejection seats have several inherently
dangerous features that are a definite hazard to
uninformed and/or careless personnel. Consequently,
whenever the aircraft is on the ground,
all safety pins must be installed and not removed
until the aircraft is ready for flight. Caution must

be observed at all times during maintenance of
and around the seats to avoid injury and equipment
damage by explosive devices of the seat.
Safety precautions and correct procedures cannot
be overemphasized.

Keep all cartridges away from live circuits.
Under no circumstances should any person reach
within or enter an enclosure for the purpose of
servicing or adjusting equipment without the
immediate presence or assistance of another
person capable of rendering aid.

When removing cartridges for inspections or
for safety reasons, they must be marked for
identification so they can be reinstalled in the same
device from which they were removed. Under no
circumstances should an unmarked or
unidentified cartridge be installed in any cartridge-
actuated device.

Cartridges should be handled as little as
practicable to minimize risk of fire, explosion, and
damage from accidental causes. All safety devices
must be kept in good order and used only as
designated.

Cartridges must be stored where they will not
be exposed to direct rays of the sun, and they must
be protected from extremely high temperatures.
When in containers, they must be stored in a cool,
dry place where they can be readily inspected.

The seat must always be disarmed before
removal from the aircraft because firing of the
seat may occur. While handling percussion-fired
cartridges, you must exercise extreme caution not
to drop cartridges because they can fire upon
impact.

The following general precautions should
always be kept in mind.

1. Ejection seats must be treated with the
same respect as a loaded gun.
2. Always consider an ejection seat system as
loaded and armed.
3. Before you enter a cockpit, know where the
ejection seat safety pins are located, and make
certain of their installation.
4. Only authorized personnel may work on,
remove, or install ejection seats and components,
and only in authorized areas.
EJECTION SEAT CHECK-OUTS

The modern, high-performance aircraft used
by todays Navy place extreme demands on
emergency escape systems. These systems contain
highly explosive devices that are designed for onetime
use only. Actuation of these devices could

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result in severe injury or death to personnel and
damage to or destruction of aircraft. Therefore,
due to the inherent dangers associated with
ejection seats and canopy systems, a seat/canopy
check-out procedure is required. The Egress/
Environmental Work Center (AME shop) is responsible
for indoctrinating all personnel in the
hazards and safety precautions associated with
these systems. A thorough seat check-out will be
given, by a qualified Aviation Structural Mechanic
(Safety Equipmentman) (AME), to all newly
assigned maintenance personnel prior to their
performing any aircraft maintenance work on the
aircraft, and every 6 months thereafter. In
addition, any personnel removed from aircraft
maintenance responsibilities for over 90 days must
receive a seat check-out before performing any
aircraft maintenance. The AME work center and
the other maintenance work centers will maintain
records of seat check-outs, including date given,
date due, and the signature of the AME
performing the check-out.

The seat check-out program will be established
by a squadron MI. All personnel due seat checkout
requalification will be listed in the monthly
maintenance plan.

EJECTION SEAT CARTRIDGES
AND CARTRIDGE-ACTUATED
DEVICES (CAD)

The types of explosive devices incorporated
in egress systems are varied. The AME working
with these devices must know how they function,
their characteristics, how to identify them, their
service-life limitations, and all safety precautions.

The AME who understands the importance of
all these factors and who correctly uses the
maintenance manuals is better equipped to
supervise and train others. The following manuals
are required for the AME to meet the above
requirements:

1. Description, Preparation for use, and
Handling Instructions, Aircrew Escape
Propulsion System (AEPS) Devices, NAVAIR
11-85-1
2. General Use Cartridges and Cartridge
Actuated Devices for Aircraft and Associated
Equipment (CADS), NAVAIR 11-100-1.1,
NAVAIR 11-100-1.2, NAVAIR 11-100-1.3
3. Specific aircraft MIMs
4. OP 4, Ammunition Afloat
5. OP 5, Ammunition and Explosives Ashore
Service Life

The service life of a CAD is the specific period

of time that it is allowed to be used. These periods

of time are affected by various environmental

conditions, which have resulted in the assignment

of time limits or overage requirements. These

limits are shelf life and installed life.

The establishment of service-life limits is based

upon design verification tests, qualification tests,

and surveillance evaluations. The established

limits are approved by the Naval Air Systems

Command. Therefore, the establishment of

service-life time limits is not arbitrary and must

be adhered to as specified.

Before deployment to areas that do not permit

ready supply and servicing of cartridges or

cartridge-actuated devices, an inspection must be

made of all CAD service-life expiration dates. If,

during this inspection, it is determined that a CAD

will become overage during the period of the

deployment, the CAD must be replaced prior to

the deployment. Before installation of any CAD,

the service life expiration date of the unit must

be checked to ensure that the unit is not overage

and will not become overage prior to the next

periodic maintenance cycle of the aircraft.

During standard depot-level maintenance
(SDLM), the expiration dates of all installed
CADs must be checked. Those CADs assigned to
organizational level for maintenance and have
expiration dates prior to the next scheduled
inspection after the aircraft is returned to its
custodian must be replaced. CADs assigned to
depot level for maintenance that have expiration
dates falling prior to the next scheduled SDLM
should also be replaced. The exception is systems
replaced exclusively through the use of a field
modification team. Adherence to these procedures
will prevent loss of aircraft mission capability due
to CAD service-life expiration.

Expiration Dates

To determine service-life expiration dates,
both the shelf life and installed life must be
computed. First, compute the shelf life of the
CAD by using its lot number to determine the
month and year of manufacture. Refer to table
1-1 to ensure correct interpretation of the lot
number since there are currently two methods
used to derive lot numbers. Obtain the established
shelf life (number of months and years) for the
individual CAD from the NAVAIR 11-100-1
series manual. Add this figure (shelf life) to the

1-8

Table 1-1.-Derivation of Lot Number

month and year of manufacture determined from
the CAD lot number. The resulting sum (date) is
the shelf-life expiration date of the CAD in
question.

Example:

Lot number/date of manufacture 0579

+ Shelf-life in years + 6
Shelf-life expiration date 0585

Next, determine the installed-life expiration
date of the CAD by referring to the NAVAIR
11-100-1 series manual. Obtain the installed-life
figure (number of months or years), and add that
figure to the date (month) the CADs hermetically
sealed container was opened. The resulting sum

(date) will be the installed-life expiration date for

the CAD in question.
Example:
Date opened
+ Installed life in months
Installed-life expiration date
0879
+ 42
0283

Then, compare the two dates derived (shelflife
and installed-life). Whichever date occurs first
is the CAD service-life expiration date.

Example:

Shelf-life 0585

Installed-life 0283

Service-life expiration date 0283

1-9

Since only the month and year are used in
computing service-life dates, the date the
hermetically sealed container is opened and the
expiration date must be computed to the last day
of the month involved. If the date the sealed
container was opened is not available, the
installed-life must be computed from the date of
manufacture as determined from the lot number.

Marking Expiration Dates

Before installing a CAD in an aircraft system,
both CAD service-life expiration dates (shelf-life
and installed-life) should be computed. The time
limit that is exceeded first will be the service-life
expiration date of the CAD. The service-life
expiration date must be entered in the aircraft
logbook.

Use permanent ink for marking CADs with
container opened dates and service-life expiration
dates. Do not scribe, scratch, or eletroetch these
dates, as damage will occur to the CAD’s
corrosion resistance surface. The marking pen,
NSN 7520-00-043-3408, is available from GSA
supply, and is recommended for this purpose.

When you install a CAD in an aircraft system,
a log entry must be made on OPNAV Form
4790/26A, as directed by OPNAVINST 4790.2
(series). When a CAD’s hermetically sealed
container is opened, the container opened date
and the service-life expiration date (month and
year) must be marked with indelible ink on the
container and on each CAD in the container.

Service-Life Extension

Contingency service-life extensions for the
CADs listed in the NAVAIR 11-100-1 (series), not
to exceed 30 days, may be granted by the
commanding officer or his authorized representative.
The extensions may be applied to a
specific CAD on a one-time only basis when
replacements are not available and failure to
extend the service-life would disrupt flight
operations. The contingency authority is granted
on the condition that Naval Ordnance Station,
Indian Head, Maryland; NAVAIRSYSCOM,
Washington, D.C.; and SPCC, Mechanicsburg,
Pennsylvania, be immediately notified by message
or speed letter when such authority is exercised.

When the situation warrants, an additional
service-life extension beyond the 30-day
contingency extension may be requested by
message from NAVORDSTA. All extensions
beyond 30 days must be approved by the

NAVORDSTA or NAVAIRSYSCOM. All approved
additional service-life extensions will be
transmitted by message to the activity making the
request. When a service-life extension is granted,
an entry must be made in the aircraft logbook.
When an aircraft is transferred with a service-life
extension in effect, the gaining activity must be
notified, and no new contingency service-life
extensions may be granted by the commanding
officer of the gaining activity.

Service-life Change

The permanent service life of a CAD maybe
changed only by a rapid action change (RAC),
interim rapid action change (IRAC), or formal
change to NAVAIR 11-100-1 (series) as directed
by COMNAVAIRSYSCOM, Washington, D.C.
If the change affects those items installed in an
aircraft, the change will be recorded in the
aircraft’s logbook. A line will be drawn through
the service-life expiration date shown and the new
computed expiration date entered, citing the
authority for the change; for example, message
number, rapid action change number, or change
number. Each new expiration date will supersede
the previous date. The latest expiration date
entered in the aircraft logbook will always be the
final date the CAD may remain installed in the
aircraft.

When a contingency service-life extension has
been authorized for a specific CAD, the new
computed service-life expiration date (month and
year) will be added to the original aircraft logbook
entry for that CAD. When an additional service-
life extension has been granted for a specific
CAD, the new service-life expiration date (month
and year) will be added to the original aircraft
logbook entry.

CAD Maintenance Policy

CAD maintenance policy prohibits unauthorized
maintenance or adjustments to a CAD at any
of the three levels of maintenance: organizational,
intermediate, or depot. Authorized maintenance
actions are limited to removal, inspection, and
replacement, unless specifically detailed in the
aircraft MIM or by a technical directive.

CADs and items of equipment in ejection
systems are for one-time use only. They are never
to be refurbished or used again after firing. This
is equally true of functional equipment, rigid lines,
plumbing lines, and hoses. Ejection seats and
escape system components that have been used

1-10

in an ejection or fired, regardless of apparent
condition, are prohibited from reuse, and must
be disposed of as directed by OPNAVINST
4790.2 (series), OPNAVINST 3750.6 (series), and
the applicable CAD and rocket manual.

Because of the extreme stress and strain to the
ejection seats and escape system components
during ejection, they cannot be reused. This stress
could reduce the structural or mechanical reliability
of these items. In the case of an
inadvertent firing of a cartridge or CAD, all
contaminated ballistic lines and devices must be
replaced because of the corrosive nature of the
explosive.

The service-life of wire-braid, Teflon® -lined
hoses installed in ballistic applications is the same
as that of the aircraft in which it is installed, unless
it is used. A hose is considered to be used if the
device to which it is attached is fired, either
intentionally or accidentally. If this occurs, the
hose and related fittings must be replaced. Before
you install a hose or fitting (line, elbow, T, etc.)
make sure that it is not contaminated with hydraulic
fluid, oil, or a similar type of contaminant.
All hoses in the escape system must be inspected
for accidental damage at every phased inspection,
upon seat removal, after removal of any part of
the escape system, and for disconnection of any
hose.

When CADs are not installed in an aircraft,
the inlet and outlet ports must be sealed with
protective closures to prevent the entrance of
moisture and foreign matter. For shipping
purposes, the safety pins and protective closures
provided with the replacement CAD must be
returned with the replaced CAD to ensure it is in
a safe condition during handling and storage.
During ejection system maintenance actions, all
disconnected CADs and associated ballistic lines
must be protected with flexible plastic plugs that
conform to MIL-C-5501/10A and flexible plastic
caps that conform to MIL-C-5501/11. NAVAIR
11-100-1.1 provides information relating to
these caps and plugs,

Cartridges are carefully designed and
manufactured, but their performance in cartridge-
actuated devices is dependable only when they
have been properly handled and installed. Care
must be observed to maintain the devices in
perfect condition.

Since individual cartridges cannot be tested,
the responsibility for proper functioning is in the
hands of the supervisor and the personnel who
maintain them. The quality and reliability of an
ejection system are largely dependent on the

supervisors and the mechanics who maintain the
systems.

Supervisors take note. Nothing is foolproof
because fools are so ingenious. Personal safety
for those who work around ejection seats cannot
be guaranteed. A high level of safety can be
achieved if personnel have the proper attitude,
understanding, training, and most importantly
adequate supervision. Unless proper maintenance
procedures are followed exactly, even the most
routine ejection seat maintenance tasks can grow
drastically out of proportion and bring about an
accident or injury. Education of the workers
involved is the best assurance for personnel safety.
The workers should be made aware of potential
hazards and the proper means of protecting
themselves. Workers should be assigned tasks
according to their capabilities.

Reporting

All malfunctions, discrepancies, and accidents
involving CADs must be reported by message to
the Naval Ordnance Station, Indian Head,
Maryland, in accordance with OPNAVINST
4790.2 (series). If the suspected defect is with the
CAD, the message must be addressed to
NAVORDSTA for action. If the report describes
an inadvertent actuation of an aircraft system
resulting in the CAD functioning normally, the
action copy of the report must be submitted to
the cognizant field activity (CFA) for the aircraft
with an information copy to NAVORDSTA,
Indian Head, Maryland. Accidents and incidents
involving CADs may require reporting in
accordance with OPNAVINST 3750.6 in addition
to the OPNAVINST 4790.2 (series). Submission
of the reports required by the maintenance
instruction does not satisfy the requirements of
the safety instruction. If dual reporting is
required, you should ensure the reports are
adequately cross-referenced to satisfy the
requirements of all commands involved.

All CADs suspected of being discrepant,
malfunctioning, or involved in an accident or
incident must be clearly identified and turned in
to the station or ship’s ordnance or weapons
department. These CADs must be marked “hold
for 30 days for engineering investigation (EI)
pending disposition instructions.” The report
should contain the turn-in document number, and
it should identify the activity holding the material.
If CFA response is requested, NAVORDSTA will
respond with complete disposition and shipping
instructions.

1-11

INSTALLED EXPLOSIVE SAFETY
DEVICES (OPNAV 4790/26A)

This form (fig. 1-1) is used in the logbook and
the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record
(AESR). This section of the logbook/AESR
contains a record of all explosive safety devices
(for example, initiators and canopy releases)
installed in the aircraft/major assemblies.
Explosive devices installed in major assemblies/
equipment (for example, ejection seats and in-
flight refueling stores) must be recorded in the
Installed Explosive Safety Devices page of the
appropriate AESR. Explosive devices installed in
personnel parachutes are recorded on the
Parachute Configuration Inspection and History
Record, and when installed in other safety and
survival equipment, on the History Card Aviation
Crew System. All other explosive safety
devices must be recorded on the Installed
Explosive Safety Devices Form of the log-
book/AESR. This form is not required when the
recording of escape system explosive components
in F-14A aircraft is done in accordance with
NAVAIR 11-100-1.1 (NOTAL).

Certain equipment is transferred from one
aircraft to another during SDLM and replaced
during periods of scheduled maintenance. This
emphasizes the need to carefully and periodically
check this record regarding the status of the
explosive devices currently installed in the
aircraft/equipment. This record is maintained in
a current status by all activities having custody
of performing rework on the aircraft/equipment
in which explosive safety devices are installed.

Documentation requirements is a must. A
single line entry is required for each installed
explosive safety device. All data columns must be
complete.

The following information explains what to
report in each block.

Block 1—Aircraft Equipment/Model No.
Enter the aircraft or equipment T/M/S.

Block 2—BUNO/Serial No. Enter the aircraft
BUNO or equipment serial number.

Block 3—DODIC. Enter the Department of
Defense Identification Code (DODIC) or the

Figure 1-1.-Installed Explosive Safety Devices (OPNAV 4790/26A) (Logbook) (AESR).

1-12

Navy Ammunition Logistic Code listed in the
Navy Ammunition Stock Microfiche, TWO10AA-
ORD-010/NA 11-1-116A (NOTAL). DODICs
are also specified in the four technical manuals
mentioned in the details for block 11.

Block 4—Nomenclature or Type of Device.
Enter the name/type device.

Block 5—Lot No. Enter the lot number of the
device.

Block 6—Serial No. Enter the serial number

of the device. For devices not serialized, enter“NA.”

Block 7—Purpose or Location. Enter the
purpose or the location of the device.

Block 8—Installing Activity/Date. Enter the
short title of the activity and the month and year
that the device was installed; for example,
VA34/JUL90.

Block 9—Container Open Date. Enter the
month and year the container was opened; for
example, JUL 90. When the container open date
is not required for AEPS devices, “NA” will be
entered.

Block 10—Date of Manufacture. Enter the
date, month, and year of manufacture; for
example, JUL 90. For CADS enter manufacture
date, and for AEPS enter propellant manufacture
date.

Block 11—Expiration Date. Enter the
computed month and year; for example, JUL 90.
Installed service-life expiration dates for explosive
devices are computed from the date of
manufacture, the date the hermetically sealed
container is opened, and the date the device is
installed. The method used in computing the
expiration date of explosive devices and the
number of months/years a specific device may
remain in service is contained in NA 1185-
1-1.2(NOTAL), NA 11-100-1.1(NOTAL), NA
11-100-1.2(NOTAL), and NA 11-100-1.3(NOTAL).
When installed explosive safety devices have
extensions granted, the expiration date will be

updated by drawing a line through the old
expiration date and placing the new expiration
date above it. The authority granting the
extension, for example, message originator and
date time group (DTG or IRAC number and
manual), will be logged in the Remarks Column
(block 12).

Block 12—Remarks. Make applicable
remarks. This block is limited in size; use the
Miscellaneous/History page if additional space is
required.

Block 13—Removal Date. Enter the month
and year the device was removed; for example,
JUL 90.

POLICY FOR SAFETY PROGRAM

Learning Objective: Recognize the
importance of training personnel to fully
comply with safety precautions and
directives.

While no attempt has been made in this
training manual to cover all the areas of safety
responsibility pertaining to the AME rating,
enough has been presented to stress to the AME1
and AMEC the importance of safety. Senior
AMEs must continually strive to improve the
safety program.

The AME must interpret and apply safety
directives and precautions established by the
Department of the Navy, type commander, local
command, and the precautions required for each
job. Safety directives and precautions must be
followed to the letter. This will save lives, prevent
injuries, and prevent damage to equipment.
Should an occasion arise in which doubt exists
about the application of a particular directive or
precaution, the measure to be taken is that which
will achieve maximum safety. A shipboard
operation requires more attention to safety than
a shore-based operation. Although, in most
instances, the hazards and the precautions are
the same whether the work is done afloat or
ashore.

1-13

CHAPTER 2

ELECTRICALLY OPERATED CANOPY SYSTEM

Chapter Objective: Upon completion of this chapter, you will have a working
knowledge of the electrically operated canopy system and its components to
include normal and emergency operation procedures.

As you know, the canopy system provides an
access for the aviator to enter and exit the cockpit.
It also provides protection from the elements. We
will use the F/A-18C canopy system to discuss a
typical electrically operated canopy system (fig.
2-1).

CANOPY SYSTEM

Learning Objective: Recognize the com

ponents of the canopy system.

Under normal conditions, the canopy is
electrically operated and controlled by either the
internal canopy control switch in the cockpit or
the external canopy control switch, as shown in
figures 2-2 and 2-3. A manual backup control
mode operates the canopy when utility battery
power is low, internal or external electrical power
is not available, or the actuation control system
has failed. The emergency canopy jettison system
jettisons the canopy during emergencies and
ejection.

SYSTEM COMPONENTS

You need to be familiar with the system
components to enhance your understanding of the
system’s operation. Therefore, the following
major components are described.

Canopy

The formed-stretched acrylic canopy is
mounted in a metal frame. A canopy unlatch

thruster and two rocket motors and related
ballistic components are mounted on the canopy
for emergency jettison. An index pin, a control
cam, and three latches are mounted on each side
of the canopy frame.

Canopy Pressure Seal

An inflatable canopy pressure seal is located
around the canopy arch, along the side frames,
and across the canopy deck. When the seal is
inflated by the air-conditioning system, the
canopy is sealed to the fuselage and windshield
arch, allowing the cockpit to be pressurized.
A noninflatable weather seal is located parallel
to and outboard of the pressure seal. When
the pressure seal is deflated, the weather
seal prevents entry of water into the cockpit.

Canopy Actuator

The canopy actuator is located behind the
aircraft ejection seat on the canopy deck and
functions to open and close the canopy. A
thermal protection device is provided in the
actuator that will automatically interrupt power
to the actuator when an overheat condition
exists. It will automatically reset within 60
seconds after removal of the overheat condition.

The mechanical components of the canopy
actuation system consist of the canopy actuator
and the canopy actuation connecting link, which

2-1

Figure 2-1.—Electrically operated canopy.

2-2

Figure 2-2.-External canopy control switch.

Figure 2-3.-Internal canopy control switch.

is attached to the canopy unlatch thruster, sill. It is used to manually raise and lower the
as shown in figures 2-4 and 2-5. canopy.

The internal manual canopy opening handle
is located on the canopy actuator manual drive
Canopy Actuator Manual Drive Unit unit. The handle is used to operate the drive unit
from inside the cockpit. The opening handle shaft
The canopy actuator manual drive unit is assembly is located between the canopy actuator
located in the cockpit under the left canopy manual drive unit and the canopy actuator. The

2-3

Figure 24.-Canopy actuator.

shaft assembly provides a mechanical link between
the drive unit and the canopy actuator. (See fig.
2-6.)

The canopy external manual drive receptacle
is mounted flush with the fuselage skin below the
left canopy sill. The drive receptacle is used to
operate the drive unit from outside the cockpit
with the aid of a 3/8-inch drive tool. (See fig. 2-7.)

Canopy Control Switches

Two canopy control switches are provided for
normal electrical operation of the canopy. The
external canopy control switch is located inside
the external electrical power receptacle door. (See
fig. 2-2.) The internal canopy control switch is
located in the cockpit under the right canopy sill.
(See fig. 2-1.)

Canopy Contractors

The two contractors for canopy up and down
are located on the forward bulkhead of the upper
equipment bay. The down contactor supplies
power to the close winding of the canopy actuator.
The canopy up contactor supplies power to the
open winding of the canopy actuator. (See fig.
2-4.)

Canopy Locked Switch

The canopy locked switch is located in the
upper equipment bay under the canopy actuator.
(See fig. 2-4.) When the switch plunger is
depressed by the actuator arm, an electrical signal

2-4

Figure 2-5.-Canopy unlatch thruster.

Figure 2-6.-Canopy actuator manual drive unit and handle.

Figure 2-7.-Canopy external manual drive receptacle.

2-5

is supplied to extinguish the canopy warning light.
The switch also interrupts power to the actuator.

Canopy Position Switch

The canopy position switch is mounted on the
right canopy sill in the No. 4 canopy latch retainer.
When the plunger switch is depressed by the No.
4 right canopy latch, an electrical signal is supplied
to extinguish the canopy warning light. (See fig.
2-8.)

MISCELLANEOUS COMPONENTS

Other systems and components that are related
to the canopy system are the canopy electrical
system, air-cycle air-conditioning system,
maintenance status display and recording system,
mission computer system, and the multipurpose
display group.

The F/A-18 aircraft electrical system supplies
28-volt dc power for canopy operation. Because
the bus distribution system varies, depending upon
the bureau number of the aircraft, refer to the
maintenance instruction manuals to determine the
applicable configuration. (See electrical system
schematic shown in figure 2-9.)

The air-cycle air-conditioning system supplies
partially cooled bleed air for the inflation of the
canopy pressure seal to maintain cabin
pressurization.

The maintenance status display and recording
system, mission computer system, and
multipurpose display group all receive inputs from
the canopy system. Inputs are processed and
supplied to the left digital display indicator and
master caution light. The inputs are also
processed, recorded, and displayed as maintenance
codes on the nosewheel well digital display
indicator. Canopy caution and warning indicators

Figure 2-8.-Canopy position switch and latch retainer.

2-6

are made up of the following components: canopy
caution light on the cockpit left digital display
indicator, master caution light on the left-hand
advisory and threat warning indicator panel, and
the maintenance code display on the nosewheel
well digital display indicator.

NORMAL OPERATION

Learning Objective: Identify the canopy

normal mode of operation to include the

manual backup mode.

The canopy is operated electrically by the
external or internal canopy control switches in the
normal control mode. The canopy can also be
operated manually in the backup manual control
mode if electrical power is not available.

NORMAL CONTROL MODE

The canopy may be operated with the external
canopy control switch. To open the canopy, the
switch is held in the OPEN position. The canopy
stops automatically when the full open position
is reached. To close the canopy, the switch is held
in the CLOSE position until the canopy closes,
moves full forward, and locks. The canopy stops
automatically when the closed and locked position
is reached. Motion may be stopped at any point
during opening or closing by releasing the switch.
The switch returns to the HOLD position when
released.

To open the canopy internally with weight on
the wheels, the internal canopy control switch is
set to OPEN and released. The switch is
magnetically held in the OPEN position until the
canopy raises to full open and stops. The switch
then returns to HOLD. Canopy motion may be
stopped at any point during canopy opening by
manually setting the switch to the HOLD position,
which overrides the magnetic holding coil. The
internal canopy control switch opening circuit is
equipped with a weight-off-wheels relay that de-
energizes the magnetic holding coil when the
aircraft is in a weight-off-wheels condition. With
the holding coil de-energized, the switch must be
manually held to the OPEN position when
opening the canopy.

When the canopy closes, moves full forward,
and locks, the No. 4 right canopy latch depresses
the canopy position switch plunger.
Simultaneously, the canopy actuator arm rotates
overcenter and depresses the canopy locked switch

plunger. Depressing both switch plungers causes
the master caution light and the canopy display
on the left digital display indicator to extinguish,
indicating the canopy is fully closed and locked.
If both switches are not fully depressed or a failure
occurs in either switch, the master caution and
canopy caution indicators will remain illuminated.
If both switch plungers are not depressed within
15 seconds, the canopy switches disagree and the
maintenance code (889) will be displayed on the
nosewheel well digital display indicator.

Electrical inputs supplied to the canopy
actuator are transformed into mechanical motion
used to raise and lower the canopy. The actuator
is equipped with an up-travel-limit switch, which
automatically interrupts power to the actuator
when the full open position is reached. With no
aircraft generator power or external power
applied, a utility battery supplies power for
at least five open and close cycles of the canopy.
On some F/A-18 aircraft, a logic circuit in
the battery and charger unit secures the
canopy control power when the battery voltage
drops below 19±1 volts.

Due to decreased battery capacity at low
temperatures, canopy operation using battery
power is not recommended when ambient temperature
is below 0°F. Under these conditions,
external electrical power should be used. When
external power is not available, the canopy can
be operated using the backup manual control
mode.

To further understand how the opening and
closing cycles function, refer to figure 2-9.

BACKUP MANUAL CONTROL MODE

The backup manual control mode is used to
open and close the canopy when utility battery
power is low, internal or external electrical power
is not available, or a failure has occurred in the
canopy actuation control system.

The canopy actuator manual drive unit is
operated from inside the cockpit by using the
internal manual canopy opening handle. The
handle is removed from its stowage receptacle and
clip, and then it is inserted into the crank socket.
The handle is turned 70±1 turns clockwise to
close the canopy or counterclockwise to open the
canopy. The internal manual canopy opening
handle shaft assembly mechanically links the drive
unit to the canopy actuator. By operating the drive
unit internally or externally, mechanical motion
is transferred through the shaft assembly to the
canopy actuator.

2-7

Figure 2-9.-Canopy electrical system schematic.

2-8

Figure 2-9.-Canopy electrical system schematic—Continued.

2-9

As previously stated, the canopy external
manual drive receptacle is provided to operate the
canopy actuator manual drive unit from outside
the cockpit. A 3/8-inch drive tool is inserted into
the drive receptacle and turned 35±1 turns
counterclockwise to open the canopy or clockwise
to close the canopy.

Manually operating the canopy overrides the
mechanical brake in the canopy actuator. The
brake engages to hold the canopy at any position
when manual cranking is stopped. The actuator
is equipped with a mechanical torque limiter that
prevents damage to the actuator if excessive
torque is applied to the manual backup control
mode.

EMERGENCY CANOPY JETTISON
SYSTEM

Learning Objective: Recognize the system

components and procedures for emergency

canopy jettison.

The emergency canopy jettison system
provides the capability to ballistically jettison the
canopy in case of an emergency. The canopy can
be jettisoned internally or externally without
initiating seat ejection. It can also be jettisoned
by initiating ejection. This is accomplished by
pulling the ejection control handle on the ejection
seat.

COMPONENTS

Before discussing the internal and external
methods of jettisoning the canopy, a description
of the system’s components is needed.

External Canopy Jettison Handles
And Cables

The external canopy jettison handles and
cables are stowed behind doors on each side of
the aircraft near the radome. (See figs. 2-1 and
2-10.) Each handle is attached to approximately
8 feet of cable. The cables are routed through the
gun bay and are joined to a common cable at the
cockpit forward pressure bulkhead. This single,
common cable runs through the bulkhead into the
cockpit, where it connects to the internal canopy
jettison lever linkage.

Figure 2-10.-External canopy jettison handle.

Internal Canopy Jettison Lever

The internal canopy jettison lever is located
to the left of the main instrument panel. The lever
is mounted on the canopy sill. (See fig. 2-11.) The
lever gives the pilot the capability of starting the
emergency canopy jettison sequence from inside
the cockpit.

Canopy Jettison SMDC Initiator

The canopy jettison shielded mild detonating
cord (SMDC) initiator is located below the canopy
jettison lever. The initiator receives inputs from
either the internal canopy jettison lever or external
canopy jettison handles to initiate the jettison
sequence.

One-way Transfer Valve

The one-way transfer valve is located on the
ballistic panel in the upper equipment bay. The
transfer valve acts as a check valve to prevent the
backflow of SMDC detonation to the seat
components.

Emergency Escape Disconnect

The emergency escape disconnect is located
under the canopy deck. The disconnect provides
a path for SMDC detonation to the canopy

2-10

Figure 2-11.-Internal canopy jettison handle.

ballistic components and provides a disconnect
point when the canopy is jettisoned or removed
for maintenance.

Canopy Unlatch Thruster and
Cartridge

The cartridge is mounted in the canopy
unlatch thruster, as shown in figure 2-5. Pressure
from the canopy jettison SMDC initiator fires the
thruster mounted on the canopy deck. When
fired, it moves the canopy aft to disengage the
latches and separate the canopy from the
actuation connecting link. Thruster ballistic gas
is provided to the canopy jettison rocket motor
initiators.

Canopy Jettison Rocket Motor
Initiators

The rocket motor initiators are mounted on
the canopy deck aft of the thruster as shown in
figure 2-5. The initiators receive ballistic gas input

from the thruster to produce SMDC detonation
to fire the rocket motors.

Canopy Jettison Rocket Motor

The rocket motors are located on either side
of the canopy frame. The rocket motors are fired
by the rocket motor initiators and provide the
vertical thrust required to separate the canopy
from the aircraft.

SMDC/FCDC Initiators

The SMDC and flexible confined detonating
cord (FCDC) are located between the various
ballistic components. The SMDC and FCDC
provide the energy transfer stimulus used in the
emergency canopy jettison system. The SMDC is
sealed in stainless steel tubing to protect the cord
and to contain all gases produced by explosive
detonation. The FCDC is sealed in a metallic
sheath, which is protected by a braid over-
wrap.

2-11

Figure 2-12.-Canopy jettison system schematic.

2-12

PROCEDURES

The canopy can be jettisoned by internal or
external means. The following discussion
summarizes both jettison procedures.

Internal Canopy Jettison

Internal canopy jettison is initiated by the
internal canopy jettison lever. (See fig. 2-11.) By
removing the canopy jettison safety pin and
pressing down the safety button and pulling the
lever aft, the canopy jettison SMDC initiator is
fired. Explosive stimulus produced by the initiator
is transferred through the SMDC to the emergency
escape disconnect. The one-way transfer valve
prevents the explosive stimulus from continuing
toward the ejection seat components. The
explosive stimulus continues through the
emergency escape disconnect, via the FCDC, to
the canopy unlatch thruster cartridge, which fires
the canopy unlatch thruster. Firing the unlatch
thruster pushes the canopy aft to disengage the
canopy latches and separates the thruster from the
connecting link. Ballistic gas produced by firing
the thruster is transferred to the canopy jettison
rocket motor initiators. The rocket motor

initiators convert ballistic-gas pressure to explosive
stimulus, which is transferred through SMDC to

fire the canopy jettison rocket motors. The rocket
motors produce the vertical thrust required to
separate the canopy from the aircraft. (See fig.
2-12.)

External Canopy Jettison

Ground emergency external canopy jettison is
started by opening the door on either the left or
right side of the aircraft and removing the canopy
jettison handle from its retaining clip. The handle
is attached to approximately 8 feet of cable. When
the cable is fully extended and pulled, the canopy
jettison SMDC initiator is fired, which, in turn,
initiates the emergency canopy jettison sequence.
From this point on, the sequence is the same as
internal canopy jettison. The cable action merely
bypasses the internal canopy jettison lever. When
the canopy is jettisoned, all canopy jettison
ballistic devices are spent.

WARNING

Ensure that the proper canopy jettison
safety pin is installed whenever the aircraft
is not flying or during any maintenance
task performed on the aircraft.

2-13

CHAPTER 3

UTILITY SYSTEMS

Chapter Objective: Upon completion of this chapter, you will have a working
knowledge of the operating principles and components of bleed-air utility
systems.

The utility systems of an aircraft provide an
additional measure of flight safety, pilot comfort
and convenience, and contribute to the overall
mission capability of the aircraft.

BLEED-AIR UTILITY SYSTEMS

Learning Objective: Recognize the

operating principles and components for

systems within the bleed-air utility system.

Many aircraft have utility systems that rely on
a bleed-air system to function. The P-3C deicing
system and the A-6E rain removal system are
examples of such systems and are discussed in this
chapter. This material will increase your
proficiency in troubleshooting and maintaining
these and similar systems.

DEICE SYSTEMS

An anti-icing system is designed to prevent ice
from forming on the aircraft. A deicing system
is designed to remove ice after it has formed. An
aircraft deice system removes ice from propellers
and the leading edges of wings and stabilizers.
These systems may use electrical heaters, hot air,
or a combination of both to remove the ice
formation. As an AME, you are primarily
concerned with hot air as a method to remove the
formation of ice on wings and stabilizers. The
P-3C wing deice system is used as an example in
this chapter to describe a hot-air system.

Description and Components

The P-3C wing deice system uses hot compressed
bleed air from the engines. The air is

ducted from the 14th stage of each engine
compressor, as shown in figure 3-1. The bleed air
is maintained at a fixed percentage of engine
airflow for all altitudes and flight speeds.

The hot bleed air is directed and regulated to
the leading edge ejector manifold through shutoff
valves, modulating valves, thermostats, skin
temperature sensors, and overheat warning
sensors.

SHUTOFF VALVES.— The wing deice
system contains several shutoff valves. The
fuselage bleed-air shutoff valves, installed in the
cross-ship manifold on the right and left wings,
isolate the wings from the fuselage duct section.
In addition, they maybe used to isolate one wing
duct from the other wing duct. Each valve is
individually controlled by a guarded toggle switch
mounted on the bleed-air section of the ice control
protection panel.

A bleed-air shutoff valve is also installed in
each engine nacelle. These shutoff valves are
physically identical. They are of the butterfly-type,
and they are actuated by an electric motor.

An indicator, located on top of the valve
housing, shows the position of the valve—open
or closed. This indicator enables you to visually
check the operation of the valve while it is still
installed in the deice system.

MODULATING VALVES.— The P-3C deicing
system has three modulating valves installed
in each wing. These valves are thermostatically
controlled and pneumatically operated. They
maintain the constant engine compressor bleed-
air temperature required for the wing leading
edge. When deicing is not required, the valves
operate as shutoff valves.

The modulating valves, shown in figure 3-2,
have pilot solenoid valves that are electrically

3-1

3-2

Figure 3-2.-Anti-icing modulating valve.

3-3

controlled by three switches on the bleed-air
section of the ice protection panel. When the
solenoid is energized, it admits filtered, regulated,
bleed-air pressure to one side of a diaphragm
chamber in the valve. The other side of the
diaphragm chamber is spring-loaded to the closed
position. Movement of the diaphragm operates
a main line butterfly valve.

When the valve opens, hot air is admitted to
the leading edge distribution system. The hot air
goes through the modulator valve to the ejector
manifold, out the jet nozzles, and into the wing
leading edge plenum area. The bleed air is then
directed across a pneumatic thermostat. Increased
temperature across the thermostat actuates the
sensor and opens a bleed passage from the
diaphragm chamber. This reduces the pressure on
the diaphragm and allows a spring to close the
main valve.

THERMOSTATS.— The wing leading edge
pneumatic thermostat is installed adjacent to each
modulating valve. (See fig. 3-2.) The thermostat
controls air pressure on the modulating valve
diaphragm, and thereby controls the valve
opening.

The unit is composed of a probe and a valve
assembly. (See fig. 3-3.) The probe is a core made
of layers of high- and low-expansion material that
is locked to a sliding piston. In addition, the piston
contains an override spring and ball-type metering
valve.

Airflow from the leading edge flows over the
core and causes the materials to expand or

contract. As temperature rises, the core pulls the
piston and metering ball from the seated position.
This allows pressure from the modulating valve
diaphragm to vent. Increasing temperature causes
more air to be bled from the diaphragm chamber.
Because of spring action, the modulating valve
moves toward the closed position. This restricts
flow through the modulator valve and drops the
skin temperature.

LEADING EDGE TEMPERATURE AND
OVERHEAT CIRCUIT.— To monitor the
overheat warning system, six skin temperature
sensors (one in the inboard section, one in the
center section, and one in the outboard section
of each wing) form a part of an amplifier circuit.
When the wing leading edge skin temperature rises
in excess of 230°F at any one or more sensors,
the airfoil temperature control unit amplifier
completes a caution light circuit, thus illuminating
the leading edge caution hot light.

Also, there are three ducting overheat thermal
switches installed in each wing and three installed
in the fuselage adjacent to the bleed-air duct.
These switches form a part of a loop that is
connected to a signal light control assembly.
When any one of the thermal leak detector
switches closes, its respective caution light
illuminates. Also, when the test switch is placed
in the TEST position, both lights illuminate
through their respective loop circuit.

The ducting overheat switches are single-pole,
single-throw, explosiveproof, thermally actuated
electrical switches with an integral temperature

Figure 3-3.-Wing leading edge thermostat.

3-4

sensing element. The switches sense still air
temperature. The outboard leading edge overheat
warning switches open at approximately 205°F
and close at approximately 220°F. The other wing
and fuselage overheat warning switches open at
approximately 175°F and close at approximately
190°F.

High temperature within the leading edge is
generally caused by bleed-air leakage or
malfunctioning modulator valves. You can detect
the portion of the leading edge that has the
overtemperature by placing the rotary selector
switch, located on the ice control protection panel,
to the different sensor positions: INBD, CTR, and
OUTBD. (See fig. 3-4.) The temperature at the
selected sensor is then read at the indicator
adjacent to the rotary switch. An excessive
temperature reading on the indicator denotes a
malfunction within the area being tested.

Operation

Figure 3-4, the ice control protection panel,
shows a basic diagram of the wing deice system.
Each engine is labeled by an engine number.
Directly below each engine block (in the diagram)
is an OPEN light that illuminates when the bleed-
air valve is open 2 degrees or more. The cross-
ship manifold from the bleed-air valves goes to

each modulating valve and the fuselage shutoff
valves. The fuselage bleed-air shutoff valves are
normally in the CLOSE position during normal
deicing operation. The bleed-air pressure gauge
reads cross-ship manifold pressure when one or
both switches are opened.

A ground air-conditioning switch is located
directly under the bleed-air manifold pressure
gauge. Located above the switch is an annunciator
light, which indicates VALVE OPEN when the
ground air-conditioning valve is open. Either one
or both fuselage bleed-air shutoff valves must be
open to direct air to the ground air-conditioning
unit.

A leak test switch is mounted on the upper
right-hand side of the panel. This switch is used
to determine if the leakage of the system is
acceptable.

Three modulating valve control switches are
located on the left side of the wing and empennage
ice panel. The outboard switch controls the
outboard modulating valve on the left and right
wing, the center switch controls the two center
modulating valves, and the inboard switch
controls the two inboard modulating valves.

During normal operation of the deicing
system, all four engine bleed-air valves are open
to supply bleed air to the cross-ship manifold, and
both fuselage bleed-air shutoff valves are closed.

Figure 3-4.-Ice control protection panel.

3-5

The modulating valves maintain a controlled flow
of bleed air to the leading edge distribution
system, and they are controlled by pneumatic
thermostats. The complete system is monitored
for hot spots by heat-sensing switches.

Before flight, the deicing manifold system may
be tested for leakage. This leak testis performed
by pressurizing the system: OPEN the No. 4
engine bleed-air valve; the Nos. 1, 2, and 3 engine
bleed-air valves remain CLOSED, and both
fuselage shutoff valves are in the OPEN position.
When the bleed-air pressure on the bleed-air
manifold reads 70 psi, the No. 4 engine bleed-air
valve is closed and the leak test switch is actuated.
As the bleed-air pressure drops, the time-delay
relay will illuminate the ACCEPT light after an
8-second delay if the system is tight. The light will
go out when the test switch is released.

Maintenance

The involvement of the AME2 and AMEC in
the maintenance of the deicing system normally
consists of troubleshooting. To troubleshoot
intelligently, you must be familiar with the system.

In addition, you must know the function of each
component in the system and have a mental
picture of the location of each component in
relation to other components in the system. This
can be achieved by studying the schematic
diagrams of the system.

As an aid, the aircraft manufacturer furnishes
troubleshooting charts, which give recommended
procedures to follow during troubleshooting.
Figure 3-5 shows a deicing system overheat
warning troubleshooting chart. This chart lists the
most probable cause first and then branches to
the next most probable cause. By following the
recommended charts and procedures, you can
save many valuable maintenance hours.

RAIN REMOVAL SYSTEM

The rain removal system shown in figure 3-6
controls windshield icing and removes rain by
directing a flow of heated air over the windshield.
This heated air serves two purposes. First, the air
breaks the rain drops into small particles, which
are then blown away. Secondly, the air heats the
windshield to prevent the moisture from freezing

Figure 3-5.-Deicing troubleshooting chart.

3-6

Figure 3-6.-Rain removal system.

on it. The A-6E rain removal system (for those
aircraft with airframes change number 268
incorporated) is discussed in the following
paragraphs.

Description and Components

The rain removal system is controlled by the
windshield switch located on the air-conditioning
control panel in the cockpit. (See fig. 3-7.) The

Figure 3-7.-Air-conditioning panel.

system uses hot bleed air from the 12th stage
compressor section of each engine. The nosewheel
well bleed-air shutoff valve controls the flow of
hot bleed air to the rain removal system.

Then the rain-removal, pressure-regulator
shutoff valve controls the airflow from the rain-
removal system to the windshield. When this valve
is open, it allows hot bleed air to flow to the rain-
removal nozzle assembly. The nozzle distributes
the air through a series of diffuser outlets to form
a wide stream of hot air over the windshield. The
temperature of the air is lowered by a mixing
ejector at the inlet of the rain-removal nozzle
assembly. The ejector uses hot bleed air as its
primary air, and it draws secondary air from the
nose radome compartment to cool the rain-
removal air.

In the next several paragraphs, we will discuss
the major components of the rain removal system.
You should know the location and functions of
these components to aid you in troubleshooting
and maintaining the system.

NOSEWHEEL WELL BLEED-AIR SHUTOFF
VALVE.— The nosewheel well bleed-air
shutoff valve is a butterfly-type that is

3-7

electrically actuated and operated. The valve is
installed in the hot bleed-air duct in the starboard
engine compartment. The valve is controlled by
the nosewheel well bleed-air switch on the fuel
management panel. When the switch is set to the
OFF position, the valve is closed by 115-volt ac
power from the bleed-air circuit breaker. When
the switch is set to the AUTO position, power is
routed to the nosewheel well bleed-air relay. When
the windshield switch on the air-conditioning
panel is moved to the AIR position, or when left
main landing gear weight-on-wheels switch is
closed, the relay is activated and the valve opens.
If electric power is lost, the valve will remain in
the last selected position. The valve has a position
indicator that can be viewed with the starboard
engine-bay door open.

RAIN-REMOVAL PRESSURE-REGULATOR
SHUTOFF VALVE.— The rain-removal pressure-
regulator shutoff valve is a pneumatically

operated, solenoid-controlled, 2-inch valve
installed in the hot bleed-air duct to the rain-
removal nozzle assembly. (See fig. 3-8.) Operation
of the valve is controlled by the windshield switch
on the air-conditioning control panel. Placing the
switch to the AIR position energizes the solenoid
of the valve. When the inlet pressure to the valve
is between 15 and 50 psi, the valve is fully opened.
When it is between 100 and 250 psi, the valve
regulates the outlet pressure to the rain-removal
nozzle at 75±3.5 psi. By placing the windshield
switch to OFF, it de-energizes the solenoid. This
causes the valve to close and shuts off the flow
of bleed air to the rain-removal nozzle.

In the closed position, air from the upstream
side of the valve passes through the control air
passages to chamber A and leaks past the pilot
valve stem to chamber B. With equal pressure on
both sides of the large diaphragm, the pressure
on the small diaphragm and the spring force on

Figure 3-8.-Rain-removal Pressure-regulator shutoff valve.

3-8

top of the large diaphragm combine to hold the
valve closed.

When the solenoid is energized, air supplied
to chamber B bleeds off through the solenoid and
the butterfly valve opens. As the butterfly valve
opens, air pressure from the downstream side of
the valve is applied to the bottom of the pilot
regulator diaphragm. This unseats the regulator
valve stem and permits upstream air to flow to
chamber B. As the downstream pressure varies,
a varying amount of air is metered by the pilot
regulator valve to chamber B. The metering
positions the diaphragm and the butterfly valve
to maintain the proper downstream pressure. If
the downstream pressure increases to a value in
excess of the regulator setting, the pilot valve
opens. When this occurs, the solenoid valve is not
capable of bleeding off the increased airflow in
chamber B. Therefore, chamber B pressure increases,
and the butterfly valve moves toward the
closed position until regulation pressure is
reached.

RAIN-REMOVAL NOZZLE ASSEMBLY.—
The rain-removal nozzle assembly consists of two
ejectors, a plenum chamber, and 26 nozzles. The
bleed-air duct has two nozzles aligned with and
located beneath each ejector tube. The ejectors
mix cool air from the nose radome compartment
with the hot bleed air. The mixture is distributed
by the plenum to the nozzles, which results in a
wide stream of air across the windshield. The
plenum chamber provides an approximately equal
pressure at each nozzle. The rain-removal nozzle
assembly is beneath the left windshield,

WINDSHIELD SWITCH.— The windshield
switch is a single-pole, three-position switch
mounted on the air-conditioning control panel in
the cockpit. The three positions are OFF, AIR,
and WASH. This switch controls the operation
of the windshield-washing shutoff valve and rain-
removal pressure-regulator shutoff valve. The
switch is spring-loaded to the OFF position. The
AIR and WASH positions are momentary contacts.
If the switch is placed in the WASH
position, it directs streams of washing fluid
against the base of the windshield. If it is placed
to the AIR position, it directs a wide stream of
hot air across the glass.

NOSEWHEEL WELL BLEED-AIR
SWITCH.— The nosewheel well bleed-air switch
is a single-pole, two-position switch mounted on
the fuel management panel in the cockpit. The

two positions are OFF and AUTO. This switch
controls the operation of the nosewheel well bleed-
air shutoff valve. Placing the switch in the OFF
position closes the nosewheel well bleed-air
shutoff valve. When the switch is set to AUTO
position, the nosewheel well bleed-air shutoff
valve will open when the rain-removal system is
energized or when the left main landing gear
weight-on-wheels switch is actuated.

NOSEWHEEL WELL BLEED-AIR RELAY.—
The nosewheel well bleed-air relay is a
double-pole, double-throw, relay mounted in aft
bay relay box No. 3. Its operation is controlled
by the windshield switch on the air-conditioning
panel or by the left main landing gear weight-onwheels
switch. When energized, the relay completes
a 115-volt ac circuit to open the nosewheel
well bleed-air shutoff valve. When de-energized,
the relay completes a 115-volt ac circuit to close
the nosewheel well bleed-air shutoff valve.

LEFT MAIN LANDING GEAR WEIGHTON-
WHEELS SWITCH.— The left main landing
gear weight-on-wheels switch is a double-pole,
double-throw switch mounted on the lower torque
arm of the left gear shock strut. The switch is
closed when the shock strut piston is extended.
When the shock strut piston is compressed, the
plunger of the switch is fully extended. When the
switch plunger is extended, a 28-volt dc circuit is
completed to energize the nosewheel well bleed-
air relay.

WINDSHIELD RAIN-REMOVAL WARNING
RELAY.— The windshield rain-removal
warning” relay is a double-pole, double-throw,
sealed relay mounted in the cockpit center console
below the wing fold panel. Its operation is
controlled by the windshield switch on the air-
conditioning panel. When the windshield switch
is in the AIR position, 28 volts of dc power is
directed from the air-conditioning circuit breaker
to energize the relay and illuminate the windshield
air caution light. The relay is de-energized when
the windshield switch is set to OFF. At this time,
the windshield air caution light will go out.

WINDSHIELD AIR CAUTION LIGHT.—
The windshield air caution light is located on the
caution light panel in the cockpit. It illuminates
to indicate that the windshield switch is in the
AIR position. The operation of the light is
controlled by the windshield rain-removal warning
relay.

3-9

System Operation

The rain-removal system is activated by
placing the windshield switch in the AIR position.
With the switch in the AIR position, a 28-volt dc
circuit is completed from the air-conditioning
circuit breaker, through the windshield switch, to
the solenoid of the rain-removal pressure-
regulator shutoff valve, to the nosewheel well
bleed-air relay, and to the windshield rain-removal
warning relay. When the nosewheel well bleed-
air relay is energized, the 115-volt ac circuit from
the bleed-air circuit breaker, through the AUTO
position of the nosewheel well bleed-air switch,
is completed to the open windings of the
nosewheel well bleed-air shutoff valve. With the
circuit completed, the windshield air caution light
will illuminate. When you move the windshield

switch to the OFF position, the windshield air
caution light will go out. The nosewheel well
bleed-air shutoff valve directs the 115-volt ac
power to the close windings of the motor. The
weight-on-wheels switch will energize the
nosewheel well bleed-air relay.

When the rain-removal pressure-regulator
shutoff valve solenoid is energized, the valve
opens and allows pressure-regulated (75±3.5 psi)
hot bleed air to flow to the ejectors of the rain-
removal nozzles. To lower the temperature of the
hot bleed air, the ejectors draw cool air from the
nose radome compartment. The cool air and hot
bleed air mix in the plenum of the nozzle
assembly. The air passes through the plenum to
26 nozzles, which direct the hot air in a wide
stream across the windshield.

3-10

CHAPTER 4
AIR-CONDITIONING SYSTEMS

Chapter Objective: Upon completion of this chapter, you will have a working
knowledge of the operating principles and components of air-condi

tioning.

AMEs maintain the air-conditioning and
pressurization systems of naval aircraft. These
systems provide heating and cooling of the cabin
and, at altitude, the pressurization required for
breathing. As an AME, you will be assisting
aircrews and troubleshooting discrepancies. A
good knowledge of the systems is necessary to
perform effectively. This chapter uses the S-3
environmental control system as the basis for
discussion. To simplify matters, we have
divided the system into two subsystems: bleed
air and air-conditioning.

BLEED-AIR SYSTEM

Learning Objective: Identify the operating

principles and components of a bleed-air

system.

The bleed-air system is the air source for the
environmental control system (ECS) and for
deicing functions. There are three sources of bleed
air available. The primary source is the compressor
sections of the two aircraft engines.
Secondary sources are from the auxiliary power
unit (APU) and from an external air supply such
as support equipment (SE).

SYSTEM OPERATION

As previously stated, the source of air for the
bleed-air system may be from the aircraft engines,
the APU, or SE. Operation of the system using
each of these sources is presented in the following
paragraphs. Frequent referral to the bleed-air

system schematic (fig. 4-1) will aid you in understanding
the material.

Engine Bleed Air

The engine bleed air is extracted from the 10thand
14th-compression stages of each engine. The
low-stage bleed-air check valve supplies the 10thstage
air, which is the primary source for
operation of the ECS. When 10th-stage air is
insufficient to meet ECS demands, 14th-stage air
is supplied through the high-stage, bleed-air
regulator valve.

One bleed-air shutoff valve is installed in each
engine pylon downstream of the 10th- and 14thstage
engine-compressor bleed ports. The bleed-
air shutoff valves are controlled by switches on
the eyebrow panel in the flight station. Lights on
the instrument panel indicate the position of the
bleed-air shutoff valves. The lights illuminate
when the valves are closed regardless of
the position of the switches. When open,
the bleed-air shutoff valves allow engine
compressor bleed air to flow into the bleed-air
manifolds.

The bleed-air manifold distributes bleed air
from both engines into the air-conditioning and
pressurization systems. Two crossover duct
isolation check valves prevent the possibility
of an overbleed of both engines should a
rupture occur in the left or right bleed-air
manifold.

The check valves, located in the left and right
manifolds, allow bleed air to flow in one direction

4-1

Figure 4-1.-Bleed-air system schematic.

4-2

only. If the left or right engine bleed air is secured,
or if a rupture occurs in the left or right bleed-air
manifold, the appropriate check valve closes. This
allows the air-conditioning and pressurization
subsystems to operate from the opposite bleed-
air source. An open engine bleed-air bypass and
shutoff valve allows bleed air to bypass the
check valves and flow from the left-to-right or
right-to-left manifolds. The engine bleed-air
bypass and shutoff valve is open during engine
starting. It is also open when operating the deicing
system with one engine secured.

Bleed-air pressure is sensed by the bleed-air
pressure transmitter located in the bleed-air supply
duct downstream of the crossover duct isolation
check valves. The pressure is displayed on the
bleed-air pressure indicator on the environmental
panel.

Bleed air from the left and right manifolds
flows through the crossover duct isolation check
valves to the bleed-air flow control and shutoff
valve. The bleed-air flow control and shutoff valve
is electrically controlled and pneumatically
actuated to modulate the bleed-air flow to the air-
conditioning and pressurization systems in
response to predetermined flow schedules.

Two alternate air supply sources, APU air and
ground start air, connect to the left and right
bleed-air manifold. The APU air duct supplies
bleed air through two check valves to the left
manifold. The ground start duct supplies high-
pressure air through a check valve to the right
manifold. These alternate air supply sources
are used primarily for starting engines and
for ground operation of the air-conditioning
system.

APU Bleed Air

Bleed air flows from the APU compressor
through two one-way check valves in the APU
duct to the left one-way check valve in the crossbreed
manifold. Bleed air is also supplied to the
bleed-air shutoff valve, the left side of the engine
bleed-air bypass and shutoff valve, empennage
deice valve, the left wing deice valve, and the ram
air anti-icing valve. With the bleed-air switch in
the ON position, the left bleed-air shutoff valve
is opened. In the open position, bleed air is
supplied to the left engine starter control valve.

To provide bleed air to the right side of the crossbreed
manifold, the engine bleed-air bypass and
shutoff valve is opened to allow bleed air to the
right bleed-air shutoff valve and to the right wing
deice valve. With the bleed-air engine No. 2 switch
set to ON, the right bleed-air shutoff valve is
opened. In the open position, bleed air is supplied
to the right engine starter-control valve.

SE Ground Start Air

When support equipment is the source of air,
the ground air start hose is connected to the
ground start connection nipple located in the right
wheel well. External high-pressure air flows
through the engine starting duct check valve into
the right cross-bleed manifold. Normal flow is
through the right one-way check valve in the crossbreed
manifold to the bleed-air flow control and
shutoff valve. High-pressure air is available to the
right bleed-air shutoff valve and the right wing
deice valve. Opening the right bleed-air shutoff
valve provides air to the right engine starter-
control valve.

To provide SE air to the left cross-bleed
manifold, the engine bleed-air bypass and shutoff
valve is opened. When the valve is open, air flows
around the cross-bleed check valves to the left
bleed-air shutoff valve, the left wing deice valve,
the ram air anti-icing valve, and the empennage
deicing valve. To provide air to the left engine
starter-control valve, open the left bleed-air
shutoff valve.

SYSTEM COMPONENTS

Now that you are familiar with the operation
of the system as a whole, let’s look at its
components and their operation. Knowledge of
the individual components makes troubleshooting
easier and faster. To aid you in locating parts of
the components, numbers within parenthesis ( )
are included that correlate to the numbers on the
illustrations.

High-stage Bleed-Air Regulator

Valve

The high-stage, bleed-air regulator valve is a
normally closed, differential-pressure regulator.

4-3

(See figure 4-2.) Air from the inlet (13) passes
through the filter (14), and then through the
reverse-flow check valve (15). The air then enters
the reference regulator (16), where it is pressure
regulated (as a function of altitude) by an
evacuated bellows (1). The air is then passed
through a control orifice (6), a shuttle valve (8),
and to the actuator section (10) of the high-stage,
bleed-air regulator valve to open the butterfly (12).
The pressure of the air entering the regulator
sensing line (11) with the spring pressure of the
actuator section of the valve modulates the valve

toward the closed position, as regulated by
pressure from the shuttle valve. As aircraft
altitude increases, the evacuated bellows expand
and cause the reference regulator to close. The
ambient vent (5) decreases the pressure to the open
side of the actuator section, and thereby allows
the spring to close the actuator section. This action
also closes the butterfly.

When the cross-bleed start solenoid (3)
is energized, the reference regulator larger
diaphragm (2) is vented to ambient (4). Spring
pressure on the reference regulator larger

Figure 4-2.-High stage, bleed-air regulator valve schematic.

4-4

diaphragm causes the reference regulator to
open. This results in pressure being passed
through the control orifice, which is regulated by
the cross-bleed start relief regulator (7). The
pressure commands the actuator section to
open with a corresponding opening of the
butterfly.

During deicing operations, control pressure
from the temperature control regulator valve is
applied to the temperature control connection (9).
This changes the shuttle valve position to allow
the temperature control regulator valve pressure

to open the actuator section and the butterfly.
During deicing operations, pressure from the
temperature control regulator valve overrides all
other inputs to the shuttle valve.

Bleed-Air Shutoff Valve

The bleed-air shutoff valve is a normally
closed, pneumatically operated, electrically
controlled shutoff valve with provisions for
automatic closure in the event of overtemperature,
overpressure, or loss of electrical power (fig. 4-3.)

Figure 4-3.-Bleed-air shutoff valve schematic.

4-5

Inlet air pressure flows through the filters. to
the shuttle valve (14), which selects the higher air
pressure on each side of the butterfly (15) and
routes the selected pressure to the solenoid (2) and
chamber B (8). With the solenoid de-energized (as
shown in figure 4-3), the opening side of the
actuator (4), or chamber A (6), is vented (5) to
ambient pressure through the solenoid. The resulting
pressure differential between chambers A
and B produces a force to keep the butterfly
closed. A butterfly position indicator switch (3)
controls a light (1) that indicates the butterfly is
in a closed position. With the solenoid energized
(opposite to the position shown in figure 4-3), air
pressure is ported to chamber A, which opens the
butterfly and keeps it open.

In the event of an overpressure that causes the
inlet pressure downstream (16) of the butterfly to
attain the preset value of the pressure switch (7),
the switch actuates and de-energizes the solenoid
electrical circuit to close the valve. When the inlet
pressure returns to the switch reset value, the
electrical circuit closes to re-establish solenoid
control.

In the event of an overtemperature that causes
the inlet temperature to attain the preset value of
the temperature switch (9), the switch de-energizes
the solenoid and closes the valve. When the
temperature returns to the switch reset value, the
solenoid re-establishes control.

Check Valves

Five check valves are used in the bleed-air
system: two in the cross-bleed duct, two in the
auxiliary power unit (APU) bleed-air duct, and
one in the ground starting duct. These are 3-inch
diameter, insert-type, spring-loaded closed split-
flapper valves, which are designed to be inserted
into, and contained by, the aircraft duct.

Low-Stage Bleed-Air Check Valve

The low-stage bleed-air check valve is installed
in the engine pylon bleed-air duct on the right side
of the engine. The low-stage bleed-air check valve
allows bleed air from the 10th-stage engine
compressor to enter the bleed-air subsystem to
protect the engine when high-stage bleed air is
scheduled.

The low-stage bleed-air check valve consists
of a main housing and two semicircular flappers
hinged on a post positioned radially through the
center of the housing. The low-stage bleed-air
check valve permits flow in the direction indicated
by the arrow, and restricts flow in the opposite
direction. The flappers are spring-loaded in the
closed position.

Engine Bleed-Air Bypass and

Shutoff Valve

The engine bleed-air bypass and shutoff valve,
located in the cross-bleed manifold, is normally
closed. It is open for engine starting and during
single-engine, wing-deicing operations. (See figure
4-4.) When the solenoid (1) is energized, the
shuttle valve (7) senses the higher pressure air from
the right and left pressure inlets (3 and 5) and
directs it through the solenoid to chamber A (6)
to open the butterfly (4). When the solenoid is
de-energized, air bypasses the solenoid and
enters chamber B (2) to assist the spring in
closing the engine bleed-air bypass and shutoff
valve.

Bleed-Air Flow Control and

Shutoff Valve

The bleed-air flow control and shutoff valve
is a normally closed valve with two flow schedules:
fixed and inlet pressure regulated. (See figure 4-5.)
The valve is electropneumatically controlled and
pneumatically actuated.

The venturi inlet (17) and throat pressure (18)
are routed to the delta-P servo diaphragm (22).
As the inlet pressure to the bleed-air flow control
and shutoff valve is increased, regulated pressure
routed to the actuator diaphragm (13) causes the
butterfly (15) to open. When the resultant venturi
delta-P reaches the predetermined value, as set by
the calibration spring (12), the delta-P servo
diaphragm moves. This causes the flexure beam

(11) to lift off the servo valve and seat (20). This
decreases pressure downstream of the control
orifice (3), which closes the butterfly to a position
that maintains the desired venturi delta-P. This
delta-P corresponds to the desired high-flow
setting when solenoid A (26) is de-energized.
When solenoid A is energized, regulated
pressure acting on the high-flow low-flow reset
diaphragm (7) moves the reset lever to the low-
flow stop (10) and reduces the calibration spring
load on the delta-P servo diaphragm. This causes
the delta-P servo diaphragm to regulate the
airflow at low condition. Solenoid A is operated
electrically by an altitude switch (25). As the
venturi inlet pressure increases, the inlet pressure
compensating piston (5) moves against the reset
lever (9) and modulates the air flow to a low value.
The inlet pressure compensating spring preload
and rate are selected to provide a prescribed
schedule. When solenoid B (27) is energized,
actuator pressure is vented to ambient, and the
butterfly valve closes.

4-6

Figure 4-4.-Engine bleed-air bypass and shutoff valve.

4-7

Figure 4-5

4-8

Bleed-Air Transmitter

The pressure transmitter senses the bleed-air pressure
in the duct upstream from the bleed-air flow
control and shutoff valve. The pressure transmitter
transmits the pressure indication to the bleed-air
pressure indicator on the environmental panel.

AIR-CONDITIONING SYSTEM

Learning Objective: Identify the operating
principles and components of an air-
conditioning system.

The air-conditioning system consists of two
subsystems: refrigeration and cabin temperature
control. These subsystems and their components
are discussed in the following paragraphs.

REFRIGERATION SUBSYSTEM

The refrigeration subsystem, shown in figure
4-6, consists of two physically separated packages:
refrigeration and cabin air/water separator. The
refrigeration subsystem operates on bleed air,
which is temperature and pressure regulated.
Passage through the ram air-cooled heat
exchanger reduces the bleed-air temperature to

Figure 4-6.-Refrigeration subsystem schematic.

4-9

within a few degrees of ambient air temperature.
Further temperature reduction results from
expansion at the turbine. Condensation is
removed in the water separator.

System Operation

Regulated hot bleed air from the bleed-air
supply subsystem enters the refrigeration unit heat
exchanger, where it is cooled to within a few
degrees of ram-air temperature. The cooled high-
pressure bleed air enters a radial flow turbine,
where it expands to approximately cabin pressure.
The power output of the expansion turbine drives
an axial-flow cooling air fan. A substantial
temperature drop occurs in the expansion of high-
pressure air to cabin pressure (165 psi bleed-air
to 15 psi cabin air), which results in air
temperatures well below ram-air temperature.

Depending upon the cool air temperature and
dew point, a portion of the water vapor in the air
condences as small droplets. A water separator
is installed downstream from the turbine discharge
to remove between 50 and 70 percent of the
moisture in the cooled air. If the turbine discharge
air is also below 32°F, the water vapor condenses
as ice crystals. Potential icing and blockage are
eliminated by the nonice and low-limit control
valve, the ice screen, and the mixing muff. The
nonice and low-limit control valve senses any
pressure drop through the ice screen. If ice
accumulates, the nonice and low-limit control
valve admits turbine bypass air into the mixing
muff to increase air temperature above icing
conditions.

Ram cooling air for the heat exchanger flows
through the heat exchanger core. The turbine
shaft drives the fan, which pulls the ram air
through the heat exchanger and discharges it
overboard through the heat exchanger exhaust
duct.

Components

There are nine basic components in the
refrigeration subsystem. Each of these
components is discussed in the following
paragraphs. The relationship of the items is shown
in figure 4-6.

TURBINE AND FAN ASSEMBLY.— The
turbine and fan assembly (fig. 4-7), which is
mounted in the heat exchanger upper plenum (7),
is a removable component of the refrigeration
package. High-pressure, partially cooled bleed air

drives the turbine, which is mechanically coupled
to an axial flow fan. The fan is used to impel ram
air through the heat exchanger and an overboard
exhaust duct. Pressure reduction and final heat
loss occur as a result of energy loss and expansion
of bleed air as it passes through the
turbine.

Wool wicks, with one end submerged in MILL-
23699 oil, transmit lubricant to the bearings
supporting the common shaft of the turbine
and fan assembly. A sight gauge on the
turbine housing is used to check the oil
level.

Two overtemperature indicators are installed
on the turbine. Each sensor probe head holds
down a spring-loaded pop-up stem with an eutectic
solder alloy. If the air in the passage reaches
the melting point for the solder alloy, the indicator
head pops up and stays exposed to alert
maintenance personnel that the cooling turbine
has been exposed to an excessive temperature level
and needs to be replaced. The probe in the turbine
inlet is set to trip at 217°±10°F, and the probe
in the fan inlet will trip at 450°±10°F.
Obstructions or collapse of the ram air inlet
duct is the most likely cause of actuating this
indicator.

HEAT EXCHANGER CORE, UPPER AND
LOWER PLENUMS.— The heat exchanger lower
plenum (2) contains the ducting for the ram air
inlet and outlet. Cooling ram air (4) flows into
the lower plenum and through the heat exchanger
core (3) and out through the overboard exhaust
duct (6) to the upper plenum, or to the ram air
augmentation subsystem (5).

The heat exchanger upper plenum, which supports
the turbine and fan assembly (1), is mounted
on the opposite side of the heater core. Ram air
drawn through the heater core for cooling purposes
is diverted to the heat exchanger exhaust
duct through the heat exchanger upper plenum.
The heat exchanger core is the air-to-air heat
sink, and it uses ram air to cool the bleed-air
supply.

NONICING AND LOW-LIMIT CONTROL
MODULATING VALVE.— The nonice and low-
limit control valve maintains conditioned airflow
through the water separator by adding bleed air
at the mixing muff to prevent water separator

4-10

Figure 4-7.-Refrigeration package and water separator.

4-11

icing. (See figure 4-8.) Ice forming on the wire
screen at the water separator discharge duct is
detected by two pneumatic pickups located just
before and after the water separator. These
pickups sense a differential pressure across the
water separator. If differential pressure is sensed
across the water separator, the nonice and low-
limit control valve will remain open until the
temperature of the inlet air to the water separator
is high enough to melt collected ice. When the ice
is melted, the pressure differential returns to
normal. In addition, the refrigeration pack low-
limit control electrically signals the nonice and
low-limit control valve when separator outflow
drops to 0°F.

REFRIGERATION PACK LOW-LIMIT
CONTROL.— The refrigeration pack low-limit
control (fig. 4-6) is located in the ECS
compartment. It is mounted downstream from the
water separator in a 6-inch duct of cooled
discharged bleed air.

The refrigeration pack low-limit control uses
28-volt dc power to energize its circuitry. A
thermistor senses duct air temperature and
compares it with an internally generated reference.
The difference is amplified to modulate a torque
motor in the nonice and low-limit control valve.
(See figure 4-8.) The torque valve controls the
regulated air supply (3) with a flapper valve (1),
which controls the diaphragm pressure in a
butterfly actuating linkage (12). The nonice and
low-limit control valve can be returned to the
differential pressure control mode by opening the
cabin temperature high-limit thermostat (4). This
causes the upper chamber (6) of the switcher valve

(7) to be vented (17) and returned to its primary
position. A check valve (5) is provided to prevent
extraneous signals from affecting the nonice and
low-limit control valve.
REFRIGERATION UNIT CHECK VALVE.—
The refrigeration unit check valve (fig. 4-7, detail
A) is an insert-type check valve with a split flapper
spring-loaded in the closed position. The valve,
which is installed in the refrigeration unit to
prevent hot bleed air from entering directly into
the turbine, is located in a tee arrangement in the
system just downstream of an orifice.

Icing of the water separator will occur only
at low altitudes where mass airflow and temperature
are relatively high. Only a small amount of
high-temperature air is required through the
orifice to melt such a deposit. However, at high
altitude where the mass flow and bleed-air

temperatures are low, the refrigeration pack low-
limit control operates to open the nonice and low-
limit control valve. When the nonice and low-limit
control valve is open, high differential pressure
across the bleed-air orifice permits the refrigeration
unit check valve to open. This allows
intermediate-temperature air to bypass the
turbine, and thereby maintain water separator
temperature above 0°F. (See figure 4-6.)

CABIN AIR/WATER SEPARATOR, COALESCER
CONE, AND COALESCER BAG.—

The water separator is a welded cylindrical
aluminum container installed downstream from
the turbine and fan assembly. Its purpose is to
remove a portion of the moisture condensed
during the air-expansion process within the
expansion turbine. (See figure 4-6.) The water
separator container holds a coalescer bag, which
collects the finely dispersed fog-like moisture
discharged from the turbine. The wet air flows
through the coalescer cone and through louvered
swirl vanes to cause the heavier water particles to
be deposited by centrifugal force against the outer
surface of the collector section. Accumulated
water is drained through the sump in the bottom
of the collector section. The partially dried air
then leaves the water separator by way of the air
outlet duct. The coalescer bag may be removed
for cleaning through an access cover secured with
a quick-disconnect band coupling to the water
separator shell.

WATER SEPARATOR ICE SCREEN.— An
ice screen is located in the discharge end of the
water separator to collect ice when moisturized
airflow temperature is below the dew point
temperature, or below 32°F. The condensed ice
crystals gathered across the ice screen cause a
pressure differential, which is sensed by the nonice
and low-limit control valve. The nonice and low-
limit control valve then increases the warm air
supply through the mixing muff, the coalescer
bag, and to the ice screen to melt collected
ice.

WATER SEPARATOR BYPASS VALVE.—
The bypass valve is a spring-loaded valve mounted
in the water separator container. A failure of the
nonice and low-limit control valve could cause ice
particles to build up in the water separator
coalescer bag. This ice would block the cabin air
system. To ensure that air is supplied to the cabin,
the water separator bypass valve allows turbine
air to bypass the coalescer bag.

4-12

Figure 4-8.-Nonicing and low-limit control modulating valve schematic.

4-13

CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROL

SUBSYSTEM

A cabin air temperature control sensor is
located mid cabin adjacent to the TACCO cooling
air inlet. Its purpose is to ensure adequate airflow
over the sensor, which measures cabin temperature
and sends a signal, along with a signal from
the cabin air temperature selector, to the cabin
air temperature control. The cabin air temperature
control then directs the cabin temperature control
modulating valve to maintain a selected temperature
in the cabin. During normal cruise, cabin air
temperature is controlled by mixing water separator
cold air with hot bleed air. The control also
acts as an anticipator to stabilize response from
the supply duct sensor to the cabin temperature
demand.

System Operation

The cabin temperature control subsystem
cools the bleed-air supply by air-cycle refrigeration
and ram air mixing to provide a cabin temperature
within the range of 60° to 80°F during steady and
mild transient conditions. The cabin temperature
is maintained within ±3°F of the selected value
and a temperature differential of 10°F between
the floor level and the head level. Humidity
control ranges from a relative humidity of 5 to
70 percent. The cabin exhaust air, after passing
through the internal avionics and the sonobuoy
and weapons bays, is exhausted overboard.

Cabin air temperature is monitored by a sensor
mounted on the aisle next to the cooling air inlet
at the TACCO side console. The sensor measures
the flight station air temperature and generates
a signal that is transmitted to the cabin air
temperature control. Additionally, a signal from
the temperature select switch is sent to the control.
The cabin air temperature control senses the inlet
duct temperature and compares the signals to
modulate the cabin temperature control valve.
Based on this comparison, it allows the proper
amount of hot bleed air to enter the mixing muff
at the conditioned air outlet. The cabin air
temperature control acts as an anticipator to
stabilize the response of the supply duct air
temperature to cabin temperature demands. It
also minimizes cabin air supply duct temperature
changes because of bleed- or ram-air temperature
change. (See figure 4-9.)

In the manual mode, the automatic controls
are overridden to provide manual control of the
cabin temperature control valve. Since the cabin

air temperature control is bypassed, the
160°±5°F limit on the cabin air temperature
control is raised to 185°±15°F, as sensed by the
cabin air high-temperature limit thermostat. If the
pilot has selected the temperature select switch
position for which this 185°±15°F is exceeded,
the cabin temperature control subsystem will cycle
open and closed until manual control is
repositioned or conditions change to reduce
maximum supply temperature.

The augmented air system provides ram air,
as required, to supplement the conditioned bleed
air and to provide auxiliary ventilation. This ram
air is drawn from the ram-air scoop located in the
base of the vertical stabilizer. The ram air is
injected into the cabin air distribution ducting
downstream from the mixing muff at the junction
between the water separator discharge air and the
cabin temperature control valve.

During unpressurized flight up to 3,500 feet

(+1000 or –500 feet) with a ram air temperature
between 20°±6°F and 72°±6°F, ram air
supplements the conditioned bleed-air flow to the
cabin. When operating in the automatic mode,
the ram-air shutoff valve controls the duct-tocabin
pressure differential to 7.5 ± 2 inches of
water to prevent flooding the cabin with ram air

when the aircraft is flying at high speeds.

The ram-air shutoff valve is also used to
provide auxiliary ventilation by securing the
refrigeration package and relying on the pilot-
operated auxiliary vent switch to adjust the
ram-air shutoff valve. (See figure 4-10.) With the
air-conditioning switch set to OFF, setting the
auxiliary vent switch to ON closes the cabin
recirculating air temperature control valve and
opens the cabin pressure regulator valve. If the
setting of the ram-air shutoff valve is such that
ram pressure fails to satisfy cabin exhaust fan
requirements, the negative pressure relief valve
opens. This draws additional ambient air from the
environmental control system compartment to
compensate for any airflow deficiencies.

In the event of an automatic shutdown of the
air-conditioning or pressurization system during
single-engine waveoff, the cabin air supply
temperature may change because the ram-air
shutoff valve opens. Operation is restored by
setting the air-conditioning switch to
OFF/RESET and then back to ON, or by setting
the auxiliary vent switch to modulate the ram
airflow.

4-14

Figure 4-9.-Environmental control system operation during pressurized flight.

4-15

Figure 4-10.-ECS operation in aux vent mode.

System Components

Seven components are used to control cabin
temperature. These components are discussed in
the following paragraphs.

CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROL MODULATING
VALVE.— The cabin temperature
control modulating valve has a visual position
indicator and is spring-loaded to the closed
position. It is located between the hot bleed-air
duct going to the refrigeration unit and the cooled
air duct coming from the refrigeration unit. The
cabin air temperature control provides electrical
power to a torque motor in the valve, which
converts electrical signals into pneumatic

signals that modulate the butterfly to a specific
opening.

CABIN AIR TEMPERATURE CONTROL.–
The cabin air temperature control, which is
located in the cabin inlet duct, senses duct
temperature with two thermistors and a control
circuit for signal comparison. The cabin air
temperature control output signal is in proportion
to the sensed temperature differential between the
inlet duct temperature and an input from the cabin
air temperature sensor. The output of the cabin
air temperature control, which goes through the
cabin air temperature selector, provides a
controlling signal for the cabin temperature
control valve.

4-16

CABIN AIR HIGH-TEMPERATURE LIMIT
THERMOSTAT.— The cabin air high-temperature
limit thermostat is a pneumatic control valve
that actuates as a function of cabin inlet air
temperature sensed at the cabin air inlet duct. The
thermostat’s internal valve opens between 182°
and 200°F and dumps regulated air pressure from
the cabin temperature control valve and the nonice
and low-limit control valve. This induces both
valves to close.

The thermostat uses a temperature-sensing
liquid contained in a sealed-wall probe. Vapor
forms above the liquid, varies in pressure with
surrounding temperature, and actuates a disc
spring that dumps the air pressure supply.

CABIN AIR TEMPERATURE CONTROL
SENSOR.— The cabin air temperature sensor,
located mid cabin, consists of two thermistor
probes in parallel that have a nominal 4,000-ohm
resistance at 77°F. The sensor, which operates
over a temperature range of 55° to 85°F, is
connected to the cabin air temperature control,
and it is designed to control cabin temperature
to within ±3°F of the selected temperature.

RAM-AIR SHUTOFF VALVE.— The ram-
air shutoff valve (fig. 4-11) consists of a butterfly
valve (9) and linkage. It is opened by a spring and
closed by an air-pressure actuated diaphragm (11).
The diaphragm is activated by a regulated air

Figure 4-11.-Ram-air shutoff valve schematic.
4-17

supply that is controlled by a fluidic control

system or a torque motor and flapper (5),

depending upon whether the solenoid is energized

or de-energized.

During the ram-air augmentation mode (auto

matic mode), the ram-air shutoff valve regulates

downstream pressure to a fixed differential of

7.5 ± 2 inches of water above cabin pressure. The
automatic mode is selected by energizing the
solenoid. This allows the fluidic control to
establish the differential across the valve actuator
as determined by valve downstream pressure (6)
and cabin pressure (1).
During manual operation (override mode), the
auxiliary vent switch on the environmental panel
is used to place the ram-air shutoff valve in any
position from fully closed to fully open by varying
electrical power to the valve torque motor. In the
override mode, selected by de-energizing the
solenoid, power is applied to the torque motor
to close the pneumatic supply pressure nozzle and
to open the vent nozzle, thereby lessening the ram-
air shutoff valve actuator closing pressure. This
permits the actuator spring to move the butterfly
toward an open position.

RAM-AIR HIGH-AND LOW-TEMPERATURE
LIMIT SWITCH.— The ram-air high- and
low-temperature limit switch senses air temperature
at the ram-air inlet duct. There are two
circuits in the ram-air high- and low-temperature
limit switch that are normally closed. One circuit
opens with decreasing ram-air temperature, and
the other opens with increasing ram-air temperature.
The ram-air high- and low-temperature limit
switch circuitry is interconnected with the bleed-
air flow control valve, the ram-air shutoff valve,
and the auxiliary vent switch. The ram-air high-
and low-temperature limit switch operation
controls the ram-air shutoff valve position when
the ram-air shutoff valve is operating in the
automatic mode.

GROUND AIR SUPPLY CHECK VALVE
AND GROUND COOLING AIR CONNECTOR.—
Support equipment provides low-pressure
conditioned air when it is attached to the ground
cooling air connector. The connector is located
on the right side of the aircraft in the right wheel
well at fuselage station (FS) 465. It is accessible
through a hinged door on the underside of the
sonobuoy deck. The connector consists of a
silicone-impregnated nylon hose and a clamp
supporting the air check valve.

The ground air check valve is a 4-inch
diameter, split-flapper valve spring-loaded to the
closed position. Ground cooling air opens the
check valve and closes the ram and recirculated
air check valves. The ground source low-pressure
air bypasses the refrigeration unit and enters the
cabin area because the air-conditioning system is
not used when low-pressure ground air is
connected. Therefore, the bleed-air flow control
valve will be closed.

ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL PANEL

The environmental control panel (fig. 4-12) is
located on the center console and is used by the
flight crew to control temperature, pressurization,
and anti-icing functions. The discussion of this
panel is limited to the ram-air valve position
selector, air-conditioning switch, and the cabin
air temperature selector.

Ram-Air Valve Position Selector

When the ram-air valve position selector
(AUX VENT switch) is placed in the OFF
position, the automatic mode is established by
way of the fluidic control system. Clockwise
rotation towards the ON position overrides logic
controls of the air-conditioning system. Control
of the ram-air shutoff valve is determined by the

Figure 4-12.-Environmental control panel.

4-18

magnitude of the current, which is proportional
to the setting of the auxiliary vent switch.

Air-Conditioning Switch

The air-conditioning switch (AIR COND
switch) is used to activate the air-conditioning
system. When air conditioning is automatically
shutdown and the ram-air shutoff valve has fully
opened, the air-conditioning switch must be set

to OFF/RESET, and then back to ON to restore
normal operation.

Cabin Air Temperature Selector

The cabin air temperature selector (TEM
SELECT switch) has a manual and an automatic
mode of operation. The temperature select switch
operates manually in the same manner as the auxiliary
vent switch. In the automatic mode, cabin
temperature is selectable from 60° to 80°F.

4-19

CHAPTER 5

NAVY AIRCREW COMMON EJECTION
SEAT (NACES)

Chapter Objective: Upon completion of this chapter, you will have a working

knowledge of the Navy Aircrew Common Ejection Seat (NACES), including

functional description, physical description, component identification, and

maintenance concepts.

The incorporation of the Navy Aircrew Common
Ejection Seat (NACES) in Navy aircraft represents
a significant improvement in ejection-seat
design that takes advantage of the latest escape
system technology. The NACES system gives the
aircrew improved chances for escape in all ejection
situations, reduced potential for injury, extended
preventive maintenance intervals, and a significant
reduction in life-cycle costs. This Martin-Baker
ejection seat will be fitted to the new Grumman
F-14D Tomcat, the McDonnel Douglas/British
Aerospace T-45A Goshawk two-seat trainer, and
the McDonnel Douglas F/A-18C and D aircraft.

The purpose of the common ejection seat is
to ease the logistics and maintenance problems on
the Navy’s inventory of aircraft. The new seat will
increase the standardization and reliability of
aircraft emergency escape and aircrew and ground
crew training. The electronically controlled
NACES represents the state-of-the-art in escape
system technology, and it has been selected as the
future standard of the U.S. Navy. The NACES
series was engineered from the outset for future
growth potential. The ejection seat is designed for
simple reprogramming or modification to ensure
that it maintains current technology.

As a senior AME, you already have the prerequisite
knowledge and experience to understand
ejection seat theory. New ideas have been
incorporated into the NACES. Now all that is
required is your willingness to learn these new
ideas so that NACES characteristics become as
familiar as previous Martin-Baker ejection seats.

SYSTEM DESCRIPTION AND
COMPONENTS

Learning Objective: Recognize the func

tional and physical description of the NA

CES and the components within the system.

The NACES system uses a flexible
configuration to meet the exact requirements of
the crew station designer. Although this is a
common ejection seat, the designator number for
the seat versus aircraft types are different, as
shown below.

SEAT TYPE AIRCRAFT-LOCATION

1. SJU-17(V)1/A F/A-18C, F/A-18D, rear cockpit
2. SJU-17(V)2/A F/A-18D, front cockpit
3. SJU-17(V)3/A F-14D, rear cockpit
4. SJU-17(V)4/A F-14D, front cockpit
5. SJU-17(V)5/A T-45, rear cockpit
6. SJU-17(V)6/A T-45, front cockpit
Although the physical description may differ
between the seats used in the F-14D as compared
to the F/A-18 and T-45 (fig. 5-1), the functions
of all the seats are the same. In this chapter we
will use the F/A-18 ejection seat to discuss system
description, operation, function, and component
identification.

FUNCTIONAL DESCRIPTION

WARNING

The emergency escape system incorporates
several explosive cartridges and rockets
containing propellant charges. Inadvertent
firing of any of these may result in serious
or fatal injury to personnel on, or in the
vicinity of, the aircraft.

5-1

Figure 5-1.-Forward ejection seat; (A) right-hand view, (B) left-hand view.

Ejection control handle safety pins and
safe/armed handles are provided to render
the ejection seats safe when the aircraft is
parked between flights and at all other
times on the ground. The ejection control
handle safety pins are removed by the
aircrew before flight and installed by the
plane captain after flight. Movement of the
safe/armed handle is the responsibility of
the aircrew.

Before entering the cockpit, personnel
should ensure that the correct safety
precautions have been applied.

The F/A-18 aircraft is equipped with a type
SJU-17(V)1/A ejection seat. The F/A-18D

aircraft is equipped with a type SJU-17(V)2/A and
a type SJU-17(V)1 /A ejection seat installed in the
forward and aft cockpits, respectively. The seats
are interconnected by a command sequencing
system. The two types of seat are essentially the
same, but with differences to suit the two cockpit
installations. For convenience, the description that
follows applies equally to both ejection seats,
except where noted. Where reference is made to
the aft seat configuration on the F/A-18D, the
description applies equally to the single seat
(F/A-18C) installation.

All NACES seats incorporate fully automatic
electronic sequencing and are cartridge operated
and rocket assisted. Safe escape is provided for
most combinations of aircraft altitude, speed,
attitude, and flight path within the envelope of

5-2

Figure 5-1.-Forward ejection seat; (A) right-hand view, (B) left-hand view—Continued.

zero speed, zero altitude in a substantially level
attitude to a maximum speed of 600 knots
estimated air speed (KEAS) between zero altitude
and 50,000 feet.

Ejection is initiated by pulling a seat firing
handle situated on the front of the seat bucket
between the occupant’s thighs. The parachute
container is fitted with canopy breakers to enable
the seat to eject through the canopy should the
jettison system fail. After ejection, drogue
deployment, man/seat separation, and parachute
deployment are automatically controlled by an
onboard multimode electronic sequencer. A
barostatic harness release unit caters for partial
or total failure of the electronic sequencer, and
an emergency restraint release (manual override)

system provides a further backup in the event of
failure of the barostatic release.

The seat is ejected by action of the gas pressure
developed within a telescopic catapult when the
cartridges are ignited. An underseat rocket motor
situated under the seat bucket is fired as the
catapult reaches the end of its stroke, and sustains
the thrust of the catapult to carry the seat to a
height sufficient to enable the parachute to deploy
even though ejection is initiated at zero speed, zero
altitude in a substantially level attitude. The seat
is stabilized and the forward speed retarded by
a drogue and bridle system, followed by automatic
deployment of the personnel parachute and
separation of the occupant from the seat. Timing
of all events after rocket motor initiation is

5-3

controlled by the electronic sequencer, which uses
altitude and airspeed information to select the
correct mode of operation.

PHYSICAL DESCRIPTION

Each ejection seat, as installed in the aircraft,
consists of five main assemblies. Each assembly
is briefly described in the following paragraphs:
(See figure 5-2.)

1. The catapult assembly is the means by
which the ejection seat is secured to the aircraft
structure during normal flight, and provides the
initial force necessary to eject the seat from the
aircraft during emergency conditions. The catapult
assembly includes the barrel, ballistic latches, the
piston, and the catapult manifold valve.
2. The main beams assembly includes the
top and bottom crossbeams, top latch assembly,
shoulder harness control handle, parachute
deployment rocket motor, electronic sequencer,
barostatic release unit, drogue deployment
catapult, two multipurpose initiators, time-delay
mechanism, two pitot assemblies, two ballistic
manifolds, and two thermal batteries.

3. The seat bucket assembly includes the
underseat rocket motor, lateral thrust motor,
ejection control handle, safe/armed handle, leg
restraint snubbers, emergency restraint release
handle, shoulder harness control lever, seat height
actuator switch, pin puller, and lower harness
release mechanism.
4. The parachute assembly includes the
parachute container and parachute canopy and
drogue.
5. The seat survival kit assembly includes the
lid assembly, emergency oxygen system, radio
locator beacon, and rucksack assembly.
Catapult Assembly

The catapult assembly (figs. 5-3 and 5-4)
secures the ejection seat to the aircraft structure

Figure 5-2.-Forward ejection seat main assemblies.

5-4

Figure 5-3.-Catapult assembly, forward seat.

5-5

Figure 5-4.-Ejection gun initiator (JAU-56/A) and catapult
manifold valve.

and provides the initial power for the ejection of
the seat. The catapult consists of an outer barrel
and an inner telescopic piston. The barrel is
attached to the aircraft structure, and the piston
and barrel are engaged at the top end by the top
latch plunger installed in the main beams
assembly.

The catapult assembly is operated by explosive
charges. Assembly operation is discussed later in
this chapter.

BARREL.— The barrel is a built-up structure
consisting of a light alloy tube to which are
permanently attached top and bottom end fittings.
A housing situated towards the bottom end
contains the secondary cartridge. Five brackets
support two guide rails bolted on the outboard
sides of the tube. The bottom end fitting
incorporates the lower mounting bracket for
attaching the catapult to the aircraft and studs for
attachment of the ballistic latches.

The upper mounting consists of a bracket
clamped on the barrel towards the upper end. It
incorporates an interference shoulder on one side

to ensure location of the catapult in the correct
cockpit (fig. 5-5). An interference arm mounted
on one of the guide rail brackets ensures that the
correct main beams assembly is installed. A
crossbeam secured to the barrel provides an
anchorage point for the RH ballistic manifold
quick-disconnect lanyard. The top end fitting of
the barrel has a square aperture, the barrel latch,
through which the plunger of the top latch
mechanism fitted on the seat main beam protrudes
when the seat is installed on the catapult. A guide
bushing, fitted in the internal diameter of the top
end fitting, is secured by three dowel screws; at
the end of the catapult stroke, the dowel screws
are sheared by the head of the piston striking the
guide bushing. The piston then separates from the
barrel, and the guide bushing remains on the
piston (fig. 5-3).

BALLISTIC LATCHES.— Two ballistic
latches are attached to the bottom end fitting by
studs and nuts. Each latch comprises a body,
which is internally drilled to form a cylinder and
contains a spring-loaded piston. When operated
during the ejection sequence, gas pressure from
within the catapult acts on the latch pistons,

Figure 5-5.-Interference devices, forward and aft seats.

5-6

overcoming the springs and retaining the multipurpose
initiator lanyard spigots (fig. 5-3).

PISTON.— The piston consists of a light alloy
tube, attached to the lower end of which is a
necked end fitted with piston rings to provide a
gas seal between the piston and the barrel. At the
upper end of the piston is a breech, into which
the cartridge-activated initiator is inserted. The
breech has a groove machined around its outer
diameter, into which the plunger of the top latch
mechanism on the seat main beams engages when
the seat is installed on the catapult. A V-groove
in the top of the breech engages a dowel on the
seat top crossbeam when the seat is installed in
the aircraft (fig. 5-3).

CATAPULT MANIFOLD VALVE.— The
catapult manifold valve provides an interface
between the ejection seat and the catapult. The
catapult manifold valve is mounted on the top of
the catapult. The valve is locked onto the
cartridge-activated initiator by a spring-loaded
plunger and a retaining pin. The valve contains
two inlet ports that connect the hoses from the
time delays.

Main Beams Assembly

The main beams assembly is manufactured
almost entirely from light alloy and comprises two
parallel main beams bridged by top and bottom
crossbeams. Bolted to the inside face of each main
beam are three slippers, which engage in the guide
rails on the catapult. Two-seat bucket runner
guides are attached to the front face of each main
beam and accommodate the top and bottom seat
bucket slippers. The slippers provide smooth
movement of the seat bucket and incorporate
threaded studs for attachment of the seat bucket
to the main beams. Friction pads are incorporated
in the studs to damp out lateral movement of the
seat bucket. Drogue bridle retaining channels are
secured to the rear of both main beams. Locating
pins for the parachute container hooked brackets
are bolted to the upper outside face of each main
beam. Interference blocks on the right-hand (RH)
beam (forward seat) or left-hand (LH) beam (aft
seat) correspond with interference devices on the
catapult and the seat bucket to ensure that only
the correct assemblies are installed in forward and
aft cockpits.

TOP CROSSBEAM.— The top crossbeam
accepts and locates the top of the catapult, and

takes the full thrust of the catapult during
ejection. Incorporated into the crossbeam is the
upper drogue bridle release unit. A dowel in the
top crossbeam locates in one of the catapult
breech V-grooves when the seat is installed in the
aircraft.

BOTTOM CROSSBEAM.— The bottom
crossbeam retains and separates the main beams
at the bottom end. Incorporated into the
crossbeam is a gas passage that forms part of the
drogue bridle release system.

TOP LATCH ASSEMBLY.— The seat
structure is secured to the catapult by the top latch
assembly (fig. 5-6) fitted to the LH main beam.
The assembly consists of a housing that contains
a spring-loaded latch plunger, one end of which
is shaped to engage the catapult piston. The
plunger may be withdrawn by using the top latch
withdrawal tool (handwheel). Passing through the
center of the latch plunger is a spring-loaded
indicator plunger. When the ejection seat is fitted

Figure 5-6.-Operation of top latch assembly.

5-7

Figure 5-7.-Shoulder harness control system.

5-8

to the catapult and the handwheel removed, the
latch plunger passes through the top crossbeam
and engages with the barrel latch. The shaped end
of the plunger protrudes still further to engage
the groove of the catapult piston.

SHOULDER HARNESS CONTROL HANDLE.—
The shoulder harness control handle (fig.
5-7) is located on the left side of the seat bucket.
The handle is connected to the inertia reel. In the
aft position, the reel is allowed to rotate freely.
When the forward position is selected, straps will
ratchet in, allowing no forward movement.

SHOULDER HARNESS REEL.— The
shoulder harness reel (fig. 5-8, view A) is fitted
horizontally across the front faces of the main
beams and serves as a center crossbeam for the
main beams assembly, as well as a means of
securing the upper harness. It ensures that the
occupant will be brought to, and locked in, the
correct posture for ejection. For normal flight
operations, the shoulder harness is free to extend
and retract as the occupant moves in the ejection
seat. The shoulder harness control lever on the
LH side of the seat bucket can be moved to the
forward (locked) position, which will permit the

Figure 5-8.-View A, shoulder harness reel; view B, shoulder harness reel, sectioned view.

5-9

harness straps to retract but prevent them from
extending. When in the normal unlocked state,
automatic locks protect the occupant against rapid
forward movement under high g-loading.

PARACHUTE DEPLOYMENT ROCKET
MOTOR MK 122 MOD 0.— The parachute
deployment rocket motor (PDRM) (fig. 5-9) is
mounted on the LH main beam of the seat. When
initiated by the sequencer, restraint release unit,
or manual override (MOR) system, the PDRM
extracts the personnel parachute from its stowage
by means of a withdrawal line attached to the
deployment sleeve.

The PDRM is a sealed unit. It consists of a
cylindrical body that contains a gas-operated
secondary cartridge in a breech at the lower end
and a rocket with an integral gas-operated igniter
cartridge in a barrel at the upper end. In a parallel
connected chamber is an electrically initiated
primary cartridge. A gas inlet is connected by a
gas pipe to the harness release system.

Fitted around the rocket is a sliding stirrup,
which is connected to the parachute withdrawal
line and is free to slide down the rocket as it leaves
the barrel.

ELECTRONIC SEQUENCER.— The NACES
sequencer assembly (fig. 5-10) is composed of the
sequencer, connectors to the interface with pitot
static and dynamic pressure sources, and cable
loom sleeving. It is mounted across the main beam
assembly, below the parachute assembly. Upon
activation, the sequencer determines the ejection
mode and controls the functions of the drogue
release, parachute deployment, and seat/man
separation.

BAROSTATIC RELEASE UNIT (BRU).—

The barostatic release unit (fig. 5-11) provides a
housing for the cartridge that provides the gas
flow to initiate harness release and parachute
rocket deployment. The cartridge is activated
either electrically by the sequencer or by the right-
hand start switch (via the delay mechanism). The
cartridge incorporates an aneroid capsule to
prevent mechanical initiation above a preset
altitude. The cartridge may also be initiated by
operation of the MOR handle after ejection.

Figure 5-9.-Parachute deployment rocket motor (Mk 122
Mod 0).

Figure 5-10.-Electronic sequencer.

5-10

Figure 5-11.-Barostatic release unit.

Barostat Assembly.— The barostat consists operating. As altitude decreases, the capsuleof an aneroid capsule in a housing that is screwed peg retracts and allows the mechanism tointo the release unit in a position that allows function.
a peg attached to the capsule to engage a star
wheel in the delay mechanism. At altitudes in Impulse Cartridge.

— The impulse cartridgeexcess of the barostat rating, the peg engages the (CCU-102/A) provides the gas necessary for the
star wheel and prevents the delay mechanism from functions of the restraint release assembly.

5-11

DROGUE DEPLOYMENT CATAPULT.—

The drogue deployment catapult (fig. 5-12) is
mounted outboard of the RH main beam of the
ejection seat. Its function is to deploy the
stabilization drogue and bridle assembly rapidly
without becoming entangled with the seat. The
firing of the drogue deployment catapult is
controlled by the electronic sequencer to ensure
that the seat has cleared the aircraft before the
drogue is deployed. The drogue deployment
catapult consists of a cylindrical body containing
an electrically operated impulse cartridge
(CCU-101/A), a two-piece telescopic piston
assembly, and an enlarged upper end, into which
is fitted a drogue and canister assembly.

The drogue and canister assembly contains a
1.45mm (57-inch) diameter ribbon drogue,
pressure packed into a 210mm (8.25-inch) long
light alloy cylinder, closed at the upper end. The
canister assembly is closed by an end cap attached

to the drogue strap. At the lower end of the end
cap, a link assembly is attached by the same bolt
that secures the drogue strap. When installed on
the ejection seat, the link assembly attaches to the
drogue bridle, and the canister assembly is
retained in the body by a threaded locking ring.
At the upper end of the catapult body is riveted
a threaded ring on to which the locking ring is
screwed when installing the drogue canister.

MULTIPURPOSE INITIATORS.— Two
multipurpose initiators (IMP) (fig. 5-13) are
attached to the lower outer faces of the seat’s main
beams. During the ejection sequence, the IMPs
supply gas pressure to operate the barostatic
release unit delay mechanism, the underseat rocket
motor, the pitot deployment mechanisms, and the
internally mounted start switch assemblies.

Each IMP comprises a body, machined and
drilled to accept a start switch, a static lanyard

Figure 5-12.-Drogue deployment catapult.

5-12

Figure 5-13.-Multipurpose initiator, left-hand.

assembly, a spring-loaded firing pin, and an
impulse cartridge. A gas passage through the unit
body connects the cartridge breech to the lower
end of the start switch plunger. Incorporated into
the unit body, but mechanically separate, is a
lower drogue bridle release unit.

The static lanyard assembly comprises a
lanyard, precoiled into a cylindrical container and
with special fittings swaged on to each end. The
upper end fitting incorporates a wedge-shaped
disconnect device, which engages with the lower
end (similarly wedge-shaped) of a spring-loaded
firing pin positioned below the cartridge. The
lower end fitting protrudes through the lower end
of the body and is retained by a shear pin. When
the seat is installed on a catapult, the protruding
lower end fitting locates in one of the catapult-
mounted ballistic latches.

The start switch assembly is installed vertically
and comprises a series of metal sleeves and

insulated sections to form an electrical switch
assembly. An internal plunger is partially sleeved
with insulating material, has a short gold-plated
section, and incorporates a piston head at its lower
end. Movement of the plunger before operation
is prevented by a shear pin. Two start switch
assemblies are incorporated into the multipurpose
initiators. During ejection, the start switches
supply a start signal to the sequencer at the correct
time in the sequence.

The impulse cartridge is percussion operated
by the firing pin and is screwed into a breech at
the upper end of the body. A gas gallery machined
in the upper part of the cartridge ensures even
distribution of gas pressure when the cartridge
fires.

TIME-DELAY MECHANISM.— The time-
delay mechanism consists of a spring-loaded rack
assembly in mesh with a gear train controlled by

5-13

Figure 5-14.-Pitot assembly, right-hand.

5-14

an escapement. The gear train consists of a
primary spur and pinion, a secondary spur and
pinion, an idler wheel, an escapement wheel and
an escapement rocker.

The rack assembly consists of a rack end
screwed into a slotted end. The two components
are secured together with a locking screw. The
upper end of the rack end is shaped to form a
firing pin.

To retain the rack in the cocked position, one
face of a pawl in the bottom housing engages in
the slotted end of the rack assembly. Another face
of the pawl engages in a groove in a gas-operated

Figure 5-15.-Pitot assembly, operation.

piston installed in a housing attached to the lower
part of the unit body. The piston is retained in
position by a frangible disc.

PITOT ASSEMBLIES— Two pitot assemblies
(figs. 5-14 and 5-15) incorporating deployable
pitot heads are mounted on the main beams
behind the parachute container. Removable
covers are provided to prevent entry of foreign
bodies,

The pitot heads are maintained in the stowed
position by locking mechanisms that are released
during seat ejection, as the seat separates from
the catapult, by gas pressure from the
multipurpose initiator cartridges. When deployed,
the pitot head assemblies supply dynamic pressure
inputs to the electronic sequencer. Static (base)
pressure is supplied to the sequencer from the
voids within the LH and RH main beams.

Each pitot assembly comprises a body, drilled
and plugged to form a series of gas passages, and
two cylinders containing upper and lower pistons.
A deployable pitot arm incorporating a pitot head
is attached to the aft face of a bracket, forming
part of the body. Attached to the forward face
of the bracket is a pitot connector that is
connected to the pitot head. A spring-loaded
locking plunger, which locates in one of two holes
in the body, is installed inside the lower end of
the pitot arm. The locking plunger locks the pitot
arm in the stowed or deployed positions. A
separate passage in the body, incorporating
connectors at each end and a filter, forms part
of the static pressure supply system for the
sequencer.

BALLISTIC MANIFOLDS.— There are two
ballistic manifold assemblies-right-hand and left-
hand.

Manifold Assembly Right-Hand.— The right-
hand (RH) assembly is a gas distribution center
that is connected to the seat bucket trombone
tubes and incorporates the upper harness release
piston, the ejection gas line quick disconnect, and
a housing for the bridle release cartridge. The
assembly also provides a mounting for a delay
cartridge. The drogue bridle release impulse
cartridge is installed in a threaded housing
on the upper face. The upper harness release
piston protrudes from the manifold upper face.

5-15

The lower face of the RH ballistic manifold
(fig. 5-16) has four connectors. Two of these
connectors accommodate the RH seat initiation
trombone tube (outboard) and the harness locks
to release the trombone tube (inboard). The
connections are secured by a key-operated, quick-
release pin that passes through a hole in the
manifold and cutouts in the trombone tubes. The
other two connectors accommodate the gas pipe
from the barostatic release unit and the gas pipe
to the lower drogue bridle release mechanisms.

Manifold Assembly Left-Hand.— The left-
hand (LH) assembly is a gas distribution center
that is connected to the seat bucket trombone
tubes and houses a seat rocket initiation system
check valve. The assembly also provides a
mounting for a delay cartridge.

The upper face of the LH ballistic manifold
(fig. 5-17) has three socket connectors, to which
are connected a flexible hose to the LH pitot
deployment mechanism, a rigid pipe from the

RH multipurpose initiator, and a delay initiator.

The lower face of the LH ballistic manifold
has three socket connectors. Two of these
connectors accommodate the LH seat initiation
trombone tube (outboard) and the underseat
rocket motor trombone tube (inboard). The other
connector accommodates a gas pipe to the thermal
batteries. A bracket on the front face of the
manifold accommodates the shoulder harness
control mechanism torque shaft. A connection on
the aft face accepts a gas pipe from the LH
multipurpose initiator.

THERMAL BATTERIES.— Two thermal
batteries (fig. 5-18) supplying power for sequencer
operation are mounted together in a manifold on
the LH main beam.

Seat Bucket Assembly

The seat bucket assembly (fig. 5-19) fits onto
the lower portion of the main beams and

Figure 5-16.-Right-hand ballistic manifold.

5-16

Figure 5-17.-Left-hand ballistic manifold,
(F/A-18D).

Figure 5-18.-Thermal battery assembly.

Figure 5-19.-Seat buckets to main beams.

5-17

mechanisms and provides a mounting for the
survival kit assembly, rocket motor, and backpad
assembly. The seat bucket assembly is configured
for a particular seat by adding application-
peculiar components, such as a seat height
actuator. The bucket is secured by four nuts to
studs incorporated into sliding runners on the
seat’s main beams. Interference devices on the rear
of the seat bucket and on the main beams
assembly ensure that only the correct seat bucket
is installed in forward and aft cockpits.

The back of the seat bucket contains a rigid,
molded pad that forms the back rest. It is
contoured so that when the seat occupant is
automatically pulled back by the shoulder harness
reel when ejection is initiated, he/she assumes the
correct posture. A cushion attached to the
backrest provides additional comfort for the seat
occupant.

Contained within the lower rear corners of the
seat bucket are the lower harness locks and release
mechanism. These are connected by a cross shaft
and connecting links to the leg restraint line locks
located in the side plates. The same connecting
links connect the negative-g strap lock that is
situated in the floor of the seat bucket to the rear
of the seat firing handle. Half way up the inner
face of the seat bucket sides are sticker clips. The
pin puller is mounted at the rear of the seat bucket
on the lower right-hand side (fig. 5-2).

UNDERSEAT ROCKET MOTOR.— The
underseat rocket motor (fig. 5-20) is a sealed unit
and consists of a manifold (machined, drilled, and
threaded to accept ten propellant tubes), a lateral
thrust motor tube, a cartridge tube, and four

efflux nozzles. The propellant tubes are

Figure 5-21.-Operating controls.

Figure 5-20.-Underseat rocket motor Mk 123 Mod 0 (forward seat).

5-18

manufactured from seamless steel. The tubes
contain solid propellant drilled lengthwise through
the center and having three equally spaced ribs
to provide rapid and even burning. A cross-shape
grid is positioned between the propellant and the
manifold to ensure that the gas generated can pass
unrestricted to the manifold. The cartridge tube
is internally threaded to accept a gas-operated
igniter cartridge incorporating twin firing pins and
twin primers. A lateral thrust motor with an
integral cartridge is screwed into the manifold at
the LH end (forward seat) or RH end (aft seat).
The efflux nozzles are fitted under the manifold
and are sealed at the inner end by flanged blowout
discs, which cause a pressure build-up to
ensure rapid and even burning of the propellant
and an even thrust from the motor. Threaded
holes in the manifold end plugs and a steady
bracket clamped to the lateral thrust motor are
used to secure the motor under the seat bucket,
The threaded holes in the manifold end plugs vary
in size between forward and aft seats to ensure
location in the correct cockpit.

LATERAL THRUST MOTOR.— The lateral
thrust motor (fig. 5-20) forms an integral part of
the main rocket motor, being screwed into the
manifold. An igniter cartridge is initiated by gas
pressure from the rocket motor propellant and
ignites the propellant in the lateral thrust motor
to permit a divergent trajectory to the ejected
seat.

EJECTION CONTROL HANDLE.— The
ejection control handle (figs. 5-21 and 5-22) is
located on the front of the seat bucket. It is the
only means by which ejection can be initiated. The
handle is molded in the shape of a loop, and is
connected to the sears of the ejection seat
initiators. The seat initiators have two rigid lines
that connect to the trombone fittings. An upward
pull of the loop removes both sears from the dual
initiators to initiate ejection. Either initiator can
fire the seat. After ejection the handle remains
attached to the seat. The ejection control handle
is safetied by using the ejection seat safe/arm
handle and safety pin.

Figure 5-22.-Ejection control handle.
5-19

Figure 5-23.-Locations of safety devices.

5-20

SAFE/ARMED HANDLE.— The SAFE/
ARMED handle (figs. 5-21 and 5-23) is located on
the RH side of the seat bucket immediately
forward of the emergency restraint release handle.
Contained within the handle is a catch that locks
the handle in either the ARMED or SAFE
position. The handle is connected to a linkage that
terminates in a safety plunger, which passes
through the link of the ejection control handle
when the handle is in the SAFE position and
prevents operation of the ejection control
handle. When in the ARMED position, the visible
portion of the handle is colored yellow and
black stripes and engraved ARMED; when in
the safe position, the visible portion is colored
white and engraved SAFE. An electrical visual

SAFE/ARMED indicator is incorporated in
the cockpit central warning panel, and is operated
by a microswitch actuated by the safety plunger.

LEG RESTRAINT SNUBBERS.— Two leg
restraint line snubbers (fig. 5-24), each with a leg
restraint line, are attached to the front face of the
seat bucket. Release of the leg restraint line
snubbers to adjust the leg lines is effected by
pulling inboard on the fabric loops attached to
the release plungers on the inboard side of each
snubber. The leg restraint lines taper plugs are
secured in locks positioned on the seat bucket side
plates.

EMERGENCY RESTRAINT RELEASE
HANDLE.— The emergency restraint release

Figure 5-24.-Leg restraint system.

5-21

handle (figs. 5-21, 5-25, and 5-26) is connected the thumb button allows the handle to be rotated
by two link assemblies to the lower harness lock rearward. Operation of the handle when the seat
release mechanism and to a firing mechanism is installed in the aircraft is restricted by the pin
housed in the rear lower RH side of the seat puller, and releases only the lower torso restraint
bucket. The handle is locked in the down position and leg restraint lines to permit emergency ground
by a catch operated by a thumb button situated egress. On ejection, the pin puller is automatically
at the forward end of the handle; depression of disengaged from the handle operating link.

Figure 5-25.-Emergency restraint release system.

5-22

Operation of the emergency restraint release
handle simultaneously operates the SAFE/
ARMED handle to the SAFE position. In the
event of automatic sequence failure, operation of
the emergency restraint release handle subsequent
to ejection will fire a cartridge to operate the upper
and lower harness locks and the parachute
deployment rocket motor.

SHOULDER HARNESS CONTROL LEVER.–
The shoulder harness control lever (fig. 5-21) is
attached to the LH side of the seat bucket and
is connected to the shoulder harness reel. When
the lever is in the forward position, the shoulder
harness reel is locked, preventing all forward
movement of the seat occupant. When moved to
the rear position, the seat occupant is free to move
forward and backward. Should the seat occupant
move forward rapidly, however, the shoulder
harness reel will lock and remain locked until the
load on the webbing straps is eased.

SEAT HEIGHT ACTUATOR SWITCH.—

The seat height actuator switch (fig. 5-21) is

situated immediately forward of the shoulder
harness control lever. Forward movement of
the switch toggle lowers the seat bucket, and
rearward movement raises the seat bucket. When
released, the toggle assumes the center OFF
position.

PIN PULLER.— The pin puller (figs. 5-25 and
5-26) is installed on the aft right side of the seat
bucket. Full aft rotation of the manual override
handle is prevented by the pin puller. A pin
extended from the pin puller engages a slot in the
manual override linkage. During the ejection
sequence, gas pressure from the right-hand seat
initiator cartridge retracts the pin.

LOWER HARNESS RELEASE MECHANISM.—
The lower harness release mechanism
(fig. 5-26) includes the two lower harness locks,
the two leg restraint line locks, the negative-g strap
lock, the emergency restraint release piston
housing, and associated connecting levers and
linkages.

Figure 5-26.-Lower harness release mechanism.

5-23

Parachute Assembly

The parachute assembly (fig. 5-27) comprises
a 6.2m (20-foot) GQ type 2000 personnel parachute
packed, together with a ribbon drogue, into
a rigid container and connected to the parachute
risers. The parachute risers incorporate seawater
activated release switches (SEAWARS) for
attachment to the upper torso harness. These
switches will automatically release the occupant
from his/her parachute following descent into
seawater. The parachute assembly is attached to
the upper forward face of the ejection seat main
beams. Some seats may contain the GQ-5000
type parachute, depending on date of manufacture.

PARACHUTE CONTAINER.— The parachute
container is of light alloy construction, with

canopy breakers fitted to each upper outboard
side. The breakers on the forward seat are longer
than those on the aft seat. Two hooked brackets

on the lower rear face of the container locate over
pins on the main beams. Brackets, integral with
the rear of the canopy breakers, are bolted to
brackets on the main beams. A shaped headpad
is attached to the front face of the container to
provide head location during ejection. A hook and
pile fastener is fitted to the front face of the
headpad to locate the parachute risers. The
container is closed by a rigid top cover, with a
single lug on the RH side and two lugs on the LH
side. The LH lugs deform during parachute
extraction, releasing the cover to permit rapid
parachute deployment. A fairing on the LH
rear corner of the cover protects the parachute
withdrawal line where it leaves the
container.

Figure 5-27.-Parachute assembly, forward seat.

5-24

PARACHUTE CANOPY AND DROGUE.—

The parachute canopy incorporates a crown
bridle, at the apex of which is attached, via a short
strap, a 1.5m (60-inch) ribbon drogue. The
parachute canopy and drogue are packed,
drogue first, into a deployment bag, the closed
end of which is attached via a withdrawal line
to the stirrup on the parachute deployment rocket.

Seat Survival Kit Assembly

The survival kit assembly (fig. 5-28) fits into
the seat bucket and comprises a contoured rigid
platform (lid assembly), to which are attached an
emergency oxygen system and a fabric survival
package. A cushion on top of the platform provides
a firm and comfortable seat for the occupant.

The lid assembly is a rigid platform that
incorporates the emergency oxygen system and lap
belts. The lid assembly also provides stowage for
the radio beacon and mountings for the rucksack
assembly. The lid assembly is retained in position
in the seat bucket by brackets at the front and lugs
secured in the lower harness locks at the rear,
Attached to the lugs are two adjustable lap belts
with integral quick-release fittings.

EMERGENCY OXYGEN SYSTEM.— An
emergency oxygen cylinder, a pressure reducer,
and associated hardware are mounted on the
underside of the lid assembly. A green manual-
operating handle is mounted on the LH side of
the assembly, and a cylinder contents gauge is on
the inside face of the left-hand thigh support. The

Figure 5-28.-Seat survival kit assembly; (A) top view; (B) bottom view.

5-25

emergency oxygen system is automatically
activated during ejection by a lanyard connected
to the cockpit floor. An oxygen/communications
hose is connected to unions on the LH rear top
of the lid assembly, and provides connections
between the seat occupant and the aircraft and
survival kit systems.

RADIO LOCATOR BEACON.— A URT33A
radio locator beacon is located in a cutout
in the left thigh support. The beacon is actuated
during ejection by a lanyard connected to a
common anchorage point with the emergency
oxygen lanyard.

RUCKSACK ASSEMBLY.— The rucksack
assembly is attached to the underside of the lid
assembly by five fabric straps and a double cone
and pin release system. The rucksack contains a
life raft and the survival aids. Yellow manual
deployment handles mounted on the kit enable
the occupant to deploy the rucksack and contents
onto a lowering line after seat/man separation.
The LRU-23/P life raft inflates automatically on
rucksack assembly deployment.

COMPONENT OPERATION

The operation of each component and
subsystem is discussed in the following
paragraphs. The operation of the system as a
whole is discussed later in the chapter.

Catapult Assembly

Explosive charges are contained in an ejection
gun initiator, JAU-56/A (figs. 5-3 and 5-4), and
a secondary cartridge. Gas pressure from the seat
firing system or the aircraft command sequencing
system operates twin firing pins in the ejection gun
initiator to fire the explosive charge.

Gas enters the manifold valve through one or
both of the inlet ports, depresses the check valves,
and passes down through the vertical bore into
the initiator. Gas pressure acts upon the twin
firing pins in the initiator, shearing the shear pins
and forcing the firing pins down to strike the
percussion caps and ignite the explosive filling.
The gas pressure generated within the catapult—

1. Passes to the ballistic latches to operate the
pistons, which retain the multipurpose initiator
static lanyards.
2. Propels the catapult piston upwards.
The initial movement of the piston forces the
spring-loaded top latch plunger out of the breech
groove back into the barrel latch (fig. 5-4). The
piston continues to rise, thrusting against the top
crossbeam of the seat, the upward movement
causing the shaped end of the top latch plunger
to ride out of, and disengage from, the barrel
latch. Further upward movement of the piston
uncovers the secondary cartridge, which is fired
by the pressure and heat of the initiator gas. After
approximately 38 inches (965mm) of travel, the
piston head strikes the guide bushing and shears
the three dowel screws. After a further 4 inches
(101mm) of travel, the piston separates from the
barrel and moves away with the ejected seat.

Main Beams Assembly

The main beams assembly supports the major
components of the ejection seat. The operation
of the components supported by the main beams
assembly is discussed in the following paragraphs.

SHOULDER HARNESS CONTROL SYSTEM.—
When the ejection control handle is
pulled, gas from the RH seat initiation system is
piped into the breech to operate the cartridge. The
gas also passes to the operating piston in the
governor housing, forcing it upwards to operate
the trip lever and bring the locking pawl into
contact with the ratchet wheel.

The gas from the impulse cartridge in the
breech impinges on the end of the piston forcing
it along the cylinder. Horizontal movement of the
piston is transmitted via the threaded drive screw
to rotate the splined shaft, spool assemblies, and
ratchet wheel, which winds in the webbing straps
to pull back and restrain the occupant’s shoulders.
The engaged locking pawl locks the spools in the
restrained position.

Withdrawal of the webbing straps at excessive
speed causes the two governor pawls to rotate
outwards under centrifugal force and engage the
teeth on the housing, preventing rotation of the
splined shaft and spool assemblies and further
withdrawal of the straps. This system prevents the
occupant from being thrown forward on crash
landing or sudden deceleration if the shoulder
harness control lever is in the disengaged position.
Easing of tension on the webbing straps allows
the pawl springs to reassert themselves and
disengage the pawls from the teeth, permitting free
withdrawal of the straps again.

PARACHUTE DEPLOYMENT ROCKET
MOTOR.— Upon seat ejection, gas pressure from

5-26

the primary and secondary cartridges passes to the
rocket igniter cartridge to fire the rocket, shearing
the flange of the rocket igniter cartridge. As the
rocket moves upward, the stirrup slides down the
rocket and aligns itself directly below the thrust
axis line to extract and deploy the personnel
parachute.

In the event of sequencer failure, gas entering
the unit through the gas inlet ports from the
harness release unit cartridge or the emergency
restraint release cartridge will initiate the
secondary cartridge to face fire the primary.

ELECTRONIC SEQUENCER.— When the
ejection seat is fired, two onboard thermal
batteries are immediately energized, supplying
usable electrical power to the sequencer after just
100 milliseconds, with the seat having travelled
about 5 inches up the ejection catapult. The
sequencer’s microprocessors then run through an
initialization routine, and by 120 milliseconds the
sequencer is ready and waiting to perform.

As the seat rises from the cockpit, two steel
cables (approximately 42 inches) are pulled from
the multipurpose initiators, actuating two
pyrotechnic cartridges. The gas generated by these
two cartridges is piped around the seat to perform
the following functions:

Initiate the underseat rocket motor.

Deploy the pitot tubes from the sides of
the seat headbox.

Close two electrical switches (sequencer
“start” switches).

The sequencer responds to the closure of either
start switch by changing to the “ejection” mode.
The switch starts an electronic clock, and all subsequent
events are timed from this point. In the
absence of a start switch signal, the sequencer will
simply continue in the “wait” mode. This mode
is a safety feature designed to ensure that the
drogue and parachute can only be deployed after
the seat has physically separated from the aircraft.

The ignition of the underseat rocket motor is
timed to occur just as the seat separates from the
ejection catapult, at about 200 milliseconds, so
as to maintain a uniform vertical acceleration
profile on the seat and occupant. The motor has
a burn time of 250 milliseconds. Once the
sequencer is switched into the “ejection” mode,
its first action is to electrically fire the drogue
deployment canister, which occurs precisely 40

milliseconds after start switch (approximately 220
milliseconds from seat initiation), while the seat
rocket motor is burning. This happens regardless
of the speed and altitude conditions.

The sequencer then enters its most crucial
period, when it will sense the seat’s airspeed and
altitude and choose the appropriate timings from
a set of five available sequences. This is done
during a 60 millisecond “environmental sensing
time window” that starts just after the drogue
canister is fired, and is completed before the
drogue is fully deployed and pulling on the back
of the seat. The sequencer measures the speed and
altitude from the information it receives from
three types of sensor: pitot pressure, base
pressure, and accelerometer.

Several samples of each parameter are
taken during the environmental window. These
are used to determine the ejection conditions.
The sequencer then selects the appropriate
timings for the remaining events, known
as “mode selection,” and completes the sequence
accordingly.

Overview of Sequencer Electronics and
Hardware.— The electronic sequencer and its
thermal batteries are packaged in two separate
units. The sequencer and associated electronics
are contained in a cast aluminum enclosure, which
is mounted between the main seat beams directly
beneath the parachute container headbox. A total
of nine shielded cables attached to the housing
transmit electrical signals to and from the
sequencer. The input and output actions are as
follows :

Input—

.
thermal battery power supply lines (2)
.
start switch circuits (2)
output—

drogue deployment canister squib-fire
circuit

drogue bridle release squib-fire circuit

parachute extractor squib-fire circuit

seat harness release squib-fire circuit

seat harness release (backup) squib-fire
circuit

The sequencer also has air pressure couplings
to connect it to the two pitot pressure tubes on
the headbox and the two base pressure sensing
points inside the main seat beams. A functional

5-27

block diagram of the electronic circuitry is given provide the optimum seat performance under all
in fig. 5-29. ejection conditions, both in terms of maximizing
the survivable escape envelope and minimizing the
Modes of Operation.— The operational risk of occupant injury. Figure 5-30 shows the five
envelope of the NACES is divided into five zones, zones on the speed versus altitude chart, and
each of which is associated with a particular table 5-1 gives the corresponding squib-fire
timing sequence, known as modes. These timings timings.

Figure 5-29.-NACES functional block diagram.

Figure 5-30.-Ejection modes.

5-28

Table 5-1.-Squib-Fire Event Times

SQUIB-FIRE EVENT TIMES
IN MODES 1 to 5

Altitude (ft) 0—8K 8K—18K 18K+
KEAS
MODE
0—350 350—500 500—600 ALL
1 2 3 4
ALL
5
1 Gas pressure from seat initiator cartridges,
delay cartridge or command sequencing
system initiates catapult and thermal batteries 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
2 Start switches close after 39 inches of seat
travel 0.18 0.18 0.18 0.18 0.18
3 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire drogue
deployment catapult 0.22 0.22 0.22 0.22 0.22
4
5
Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire drogue
bridle release cartridge and release drogue
bridle
Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire parachute
deployment rocket
0.32
0.45
Environmental sensing
time window 0.245 — 0.305 seconds
— — — 4.80 +t
(See Note 3)
1.10 1,30 2.90 4.87 +t
6 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire drogue
bridle release cartridge and release drogue
bridle — 1.25 1.45 3.05 —
7 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire barostatic
release unit cartridge and release harness locks 0.65 1.30 1.50 3.10 5.07 +t
8 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire barostatic
release unit cartridge (backup) 0.66 1.31 1.51 3.11 5.08 +t

All times are references to ejection seat initiation. The start switches operated approximately 0.18 seconds
after initiation. N. B: This is a nominal time. The actual time will vary between 0.13 and 0.19 seconds.

In Mode 5 operation, altitude sensing is to recommence at 4.80 seconds, continuing until fall-throughcondition
(below 18,000 ft) is detected.

t = time interval between 4.80 seconds and fall-through-condition.

Mode 1 is designed for low-speed/low-altitude deploying drogue and bridle assembly moves
ejection conditions. The aim is to deploy the main rapidly clear of the seat in readiness for the
parachute as soon as practicable after the seat has immediate main parachute deployment.
separated from the aircraft. A drogue decelera-Modes 2, 3, and 4 cater for high-speed
tion phase is not required so the bridle releases ejections at low and medium altitudes. These
are operated very quickly, thus ensuring that the ejection conditions require a delay before the

5-29

parachute is deployed, to allow the velocity of the
seat to reduce. The stabilizer drogue provides
maximum deceleration while maintaining the seat
in the optimum attitude for the occupant. The
sequence timings of modes 2, 3, and 4
progressively extend the drogue phase with
increasing speed and altitude so as to ensure that
the parachute extractor is fired only when the seat
velocity has reduced to a suitable level. The drogue
bridle is jettisoned shortly after the parachute
starts to deploy, both to avoid an entanglement
and to allow the seat to fall clear of the occupant.

Mode 5 is the high-altitude ejection sequence,
in which deployment of the main parachute is
delayed until the drogue-stabilized seat falls
through the 18,000-feet altitude boundary. This
allows the occupant to be brought down to a safer
atmospheric condition in the shortest possible
time. Once the parachute deployment sequence
is initiated, the seat performs in an identical
manner to that of modes 2, 3, and 4.

BAROSTATIC RELEASE UNIT (BRU).—

When the RH multipurpose initiator cartridge
fires during ejection, gas pressure from the
cartridge enters the piston housing and moves the
piston upwards, rupturing the frangible disc and
allowing the pawl to pivot clear of the rack
assembly slotted end. When the altitude is such
that the barostat is not restraining the mechanism,
the rack assembly will rise under the action of its
spring, the rate of ascent being governed by the
delay mechanism. After the delay has elapsed, the
rack disengages from the gear train and the firing
pin rises rapidly to strike the cartridge. If the
cartridge has not previously been fired electrically
by the sequencer, the gas produced by the cartridge
passes out of the BRU to operate the upper-
and lower-harness locks and the secondary
cartridge in the parachute deployment rocket
motor.

DROGUE DEPLOYMENT CATAPULT.—

During ejection, the drogue deployment catapult
fires and ejects the drogue and canister. As the
drogue deploys, the bridle breaks out of the
frangible container and detaches from the
channels on the main beams. The drogue stabilizes
and decelerates the seat. In the high-altitude
mode, the seat descends rapidly on the drogue to
a predetermined altitude. The drogue bridle
releases then operate, the personnel parachute
deploys, and the occupant separates from the seat.
In all other modes, the upper and lower drogue
bridle releases operate after a short predetermined

delay, as the personnel parachute deploys and

seat/man separation occurs.

The impulse cartridge is fired by an electrical

signal from the sequencer. Gas from the cartridge

propels the telescopic piston upwards, shearing

the end cap rivets. Continued movement of the

piston thrusts the canister upwards, shearing the

rivets in the threaded ring and propelling the

canister and drogue assembly away from the seat.

The bridle is pulled from its frangible container

and out of the channels on the seat’s main beams.

As the bridle reaches full extension, inertia causes

the canister to fly clear, and the drogue is

extracted and deployed to stabilize and decelerate

the seat.

MULTIPURPOSE INITIATOR.— When
ejection is initiated, the catapult ballistic latches
operate to retain both multipurpose initiator
lanyard spigots. As the seat moves up the guide
rails, the static lanyard spigots break the shear
pins and the lanyards pay out from the housings.
When the lanyards become taut, the upper fittings
withdraw the firing pins against spring pressure
until the wedge-shaped disconnect devices
separate. The firing pins move rapidly upward
under spring pressure to fire the cartridges. The
gas generated passes to the underside of the piston
heads on the start switch plungers. The plungers
move up, shearing the shear pins, until the gold-
plated portions of the plungers complete an
electrical connection in the switch assemblies.
Sequencer timing then commences.

Gas from the cartridges also passes out of the
units to the barostatic release unit (RH side only),
the pitot deployment mechanisms, and the
underseat rocket motor.

PITOT ASSEMBLY.— When the pitot
assembly is installed on the seat beam, the inboard
static pressure connector connects to a void in the
seat beam. The sequencer is installed on the
forward face of both pitot assemblies and
connects to the dynamic and forward static
pressure connectors.

On ejection, gas pressure from the impulse
cartridges in the multipurpose initiators enters the
body and operates the lower piston. Movement
of the lower piston pushes the pitot arm locking
plunger out of engagement with the hole in the
body, and at the same time, opens a gas passage
to the upper piston. The upper piston moves
outward to move the pitot arm to the deployed
position. The pitot arm locking plunger engages
with the second hole in the body and locks the
pitot arm in the deployed position.

5-30

Figure 5-31.-Seat initiator.

RH AND LH BALLISTIC MANIFOLDS.—

Pulling the ejection control handle withdraws the
handle from its housing and both sears from the
seat initiator firing mechanisms to fire both
impulse cartridges (fig. 5-31).

Gas pressure from the RH initiator cartridge
withdraws the pin puller, freeing the emergency
harness restraint release linkage (figs. 5-32 and
5-33). RH gas pressure also passes to the following:

1. The shoulder harness reel to initiate harness
retraction.
2. The thermal batteries.
3. The 0.75-second (forward seat) delay
cartridge-actuated initiator mounted on the LH
ballistic manifold.
4. The 0.30-second (aft seat) delay cartridge-
actuated initiator mounted on the RH ballistic
manifold.
Figure 5-32.-Forward ejection seat gas flow diagram.

5-31

Figure 5-33.-Aft ejection seat gas flow diagram.

Gas pressure from the LH impulse cartridge
passes to the following:

1. The thermal batteries.
2. The 0.75-second (forward seat) or 0.30second
(aft seat) delay cartridge-actuated initiator
mounted on the LH ballistic manifold, which
passes gas to the LH inlet of the catapult manifold
valve to initiate the catapult.
THERMAL BATTERIES.— To provide
system redundancy, each battery is initiated
independently by a manifold-mounted, gas-
operated firing mechanism. Both firing
mechanisms are initiated by gas pressure from the
seat initiator cartridges.

Seat Bucket Assembly

The ejection seat is fitted with a seat bucket
assembly. The operation of the components

supported by the seat bucket assembly is discussed
in the following paragraphs.

UNDERSEAT ROCKET MOTOR/LATERAL
THRUST MOTOR.— The underseat
rocket motor Mk 123 Mod 0 (forward seat) or Mk
124 Mod 0 (aft seat) is secured under the seat
bucket, and is ignited as the catapult nears the
end of its stroke. The thrust is approximately
4,800 pounds for 0.25 second, and sustains the
thrust of the catapult to carry the seat to a height
sufficient for a safe ejection. The thrust also
provides the zero-zero capabilities that ensure a
safe ejection.

EJECTION SEAT SAFE/ARM HANDLE.—
To prevent inadvertent seat ejection, an ejection
seat safe/arm handle is installed. To safety the
seat, you must rotate the handle up and forward.

5-32

To arm the seat, you rotate the handle down and
aft. When in the ARMED position, the portion
of the handle that is visible to the pilot is colored
yellow and black, with the word ARMED
showing. In the SAFE position, the visible portion
of the handle is colored white, with the word
SAFE showing. By placing the handle to the
SAFE position, it causes a pin to be inserted into
the ejection firing mechanism. This prevents
withdrawal of the sears from the dual-seat
initiators.

LEG RESTRAINT SNUBBERS.—As the seat
travels up the guide rails during ejection, the leg
restraint lines, which are fixed to a floor bracket,
are drawn through the snubbers. Inertia draws the
legs against the front of the seat bucket, and the
legs are retained in this position by the leg restraint
lines. When the lines become taut and a predetermined
load is attained, the special break rings
fail and release the lines, leaving only a short loose
end protruding from the snubbers. The leg lines
are restrained by the snubbers, and the legs
secured until the taper plugs are released from
their locks when harness release occurs.

EMERGENCY RESTRAINT RELEASE
HANDLE.— Rotation of the emergency restraint
release handle to permit emergency ground egress
will rotate the cross shaft of the lower harness
release mechanism to release the lower harness
locks, leg restraint line locks, and negative-g strap
lock. Full rotation of the handle to withdraw the
sear of the firing unit is prevented by the pin puller
engaging the rear end of the slot in the emergency
restraint release operating link.

SHOULDER HARNESS CONTROL LEVER.–

The shoulder harness control lever, mounted on
the left side of the seat bucket, is connected to
the inertia reel, and provides manual control for
the shoulder straps. In the forward position, the
shoulder straps will be locked, and in the aft
position, the shoulder straps will be unlocked so
the occupant will be free to turn and move about.

SEAT HEIGHT ACTUATOR SWITCH.—

The seat height actuator switch controls electrical
power to raise and lower the seat bucket to suit
the needs of the occupant.

PIN PULLER.— During ejection, gas from
the RH seat initiator cartridge enters the pin puller
plunger housing and lifts the plunger out of
engagement with the groove in the piston.

Movement of the plunger allows gas to enter the
cylinder and withdraw the piston out of
engagement with the slot in the emergency
restraint release operating link, the piston being
held in the operated position by residual gas
pressure. The operating link is then disengaged
from the lower harness release cross shaft by the
action of a spring-loaded plunger in the operating
link guide bracket mounted on the seat bucket
side.

LOWER HARNESS RELEASE MECHANISM.—
When the sequencer fires the barostatic
release unit cartridge, the piston in the RH ballistic
manifold acts on the harness reel cross-shaft lever.
It rotates the cross shaft to withdraw the plungers
in the upper harness locks and release the shoulder
harness reel straps. At the same time, gas passes
via the RH ballistic manifold down the RH
trombone tube assembly, entering the emergency
restraint release piston housing and face-firing the
cartridge. The combined gas pressure from the
two cartridges operates the emergency restraint
release piston, operating the linkages to release
the lower harness locks, the leg restraint line locks,
and the negative-g strap lock.

Parachute Canopy and Drogue

During the ejection sequence, the parachute
deployment rocket motor fires, extends the
withdrawal line, and withdraws the parachute in
its bag. The parachute canopy emerges from the
bag, periphery first, followed progressively by the
remainder of the canopy and the drogue. The
extractor rocket and bag clear the area. The
drogue and crown bridle impart a force on the
canopy, proportional to airspeed, to inhibit full
canopy inflation until g-forces are reduced.

Rotation of the emergency restraint release
handle to permit emergency ground egress will
rotate the cross shaft of the lower harness release
mechanism to release the lower harness locks, leg
restraint line locks, and negative-g strap lock. Full
rotation of the handle to withdraw the sear of the
firing unit is prevented by the pin puller engaging
the rear end of the slot in the emergency restraint
release operating link.

During ejection, gas from the RH seat initiator
impulse cartridge enters the pin puller plunger
housing and lifts the plunger out of engagement
with the groove in the piston. Movement of the
plunger allows gas to enter the cylinder and
withdraw the piston out of engagement with the
slot in the emergency restraint release operating

5-33

link, the piston being held in the operated position
by residual gas pressure. The operating link is then
disengaged from the lower harness release cross
shaft by the action of a spring-loaded plunger in
the operating link guide bracket mounted on the
seat bucket side.

Seat Survival Kit

The seat survival kit (SKU-7/A) operates
automatically upon seat ejection. Kit components
are maintained by the PR rating. The SKU-7/A
contains new equipment. Specific information on
the new items was not available at the time of
development of this manual.

EJECTION SEQUENCE

When the ejection control handle is pulled (fig.
5-34), the sears are withdrawn from the seat
initiator firing mechanisms and the two impulse
cartridges are fired.

Gas from the RH cartridge is piped as follows:

1. To the pin puller, which withdraws a piston
from engagement in the lower operating link of
the emergency restraint release mechanism.
2. To the inboard connector of the command
sequencing quick-disconnect on the RH ballistic
Figure 5-34.-Ejection seat gas flow (block diagram).

5-34

manifold to operate the command sequencing and
canopy jettison systems.

3. To the 0.30-second delay cartridge-actuated
initiator (aft seat only) on the RH ballistic
manifold. Gas from the initiator passes to the RH
inlet of the catapult manifold valve to initiate the
catapult.
4. To the breech of the shoulder harness reel,
where it fires the impulse cartridge to pull the seat
occupant into the correct position for ejection.
5. To the thermal batteries.
6. Via a check valve to the 0.75-second delay
cartridge-actuated initiator on the LH ballistic
manifold. Gas from the initiator passes to the LH
inlet of the catapult manifold valve to initiate the
catapult.
7. If the seat (F/A-18D only) is command
ejected (i.e., the ejection control handle on the
other seat has been pulled), gas from the
command sequencing system enters the RH seat
initiating system through the inboard connector
of the command sequencing quick-disconnect on
the RH ballistic manifold, and operates as
described in 1 through 6 above. On the forward
seat only, gas pressure also enters the outboard
connector of the command sequencing quick-
disconnect and is passed to the catapult manifold
valve to initiate the catapult. This gas pressure is
also piped, via a check valve, to the shoulder
harness reel and thermal batteries.
Gas from the LH cartridge is piped as follows:

1. To the thermal batteries.
2. To the 0.75-second delay, cartridge-
actuated initiator on the LH ballistic manifold.
Gas from the initiator passes to the LH inlet of
the catapult manifold valve to initiate the catapult.
Gas from the delay initiator is piped to the
ejection gun initiator via the manifold valve. Gas
pressure developed by the initiator passes down
the catapult to operate the ballistic latches,
retaining the IMP lanyard end fittings. As the
pressure increases within the catapult, the catapult
piston rises, releases the top latch, and begins to
move the seat upwards. Further movement of the
piston uncovers the catapult secondary impulse
cartridge, which is fired by the heat and pressure
of the ejection gun initiator gas. Staggered firing
of the catapult cartridges provides a relatively even
increase in gas pressure during catapult stroke to
eliminate excessive g-forces during ejection.

As the seat goes up the guide rails:

1. The IMP lanyards begin to withdraw.
2. Personal services between seat and aircraft
are disconnected.
3. The emergency oxygen supply is initiated.
4. The URT-33A beacon is activated.
5. The leg restraint lines are drawn through
the snubbers and restrain the occupants legs to
the front of the seat bucket. When the leg restraint
lines become taut, the special break ring
incorporated in each leg line fails, and the lines
are freed from the aircraft. Forward movement
of the legs is prevented by the lines being
restrained by the snubbers.
Near the end of the catapult stroke, the IMP
lanyards become taut and operate the firing
mechanisms. Gas pressure from the IMP cartridge
passes:

1. To the start switch plungers. Closure of the
start switches commences sequencer timing.
2. To the barostatic release unit release piston
(from the RH IMP only).
3. To the pitot mechanisms to deploy the pitot
heads.
4. Via the LH ballistic manifold and
trombone tube to the underseat rocket motor. The
rocket motor ignites, sustaining the thrust of the
catapult to carry the seat clear of the aircraft.
SEQUENCER MODES

Electronic sequencer timing (table 5-2)
commences when the start switches close. Mode
selection is dependent on altitude and airspeed
parameters. (See figure 5-35.)

All modes. The start switches close after
approximately 39 inches of seat travel and, after

0.04 second, the drogue deploys onto the bridle
to stabilize and decelerate the seat.
Mode 1, low speed - low altitude. The drogue
bridle is released, the parachute deployment
rocket motor fires to deploy the personnel
parachute, and the harness release system operates
to free the occupant from the seat. The occupant
is momentarily held in the seat bucket by the
sticker straps.

Modes 2, 3, and 4, medium and high speeds

-low altitude and all speeds - medium altitude.
The parachute deployment rocket motor fires to
deploy the parachute, the drogue bridle is
released, and the harness release system operates
to free the occupant from the seat. The occupant
is momentarily held in the seat bucket by the
sticker straps.
5-35

Table 5-2.-Sequencer Timings

Altitude (ft) 0–8 K 8K—18K 18K+
KEAS
MODE
0—350 350—500 500-600 ALL
1 2 3 4
ALL
5
1 Gas pressure from seat initiator cartridges,
delay cartridge or command sequencing
system initiates catapult and thermal batteries 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
2 Start switches close after 39 inches of seat
travel 0.18 0.18 0.18 0.18 0.18
3 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire drogue
deployment catapult 0.22 0.22 0.22 0.22 0.22
4
5
Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire drogue
bridle release cartridge and release drogue
bridle
Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire parachute
deployment rocket
0.32
0.45
—
1.10
—
1.30
—
2.90
4.80 +t
(See Note 3)
4.87 +t
6 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire drogue
bridle release cartridge and release drogue
bridle — 1.25 1.45 3.05
7 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire barostatic
release unit cartridge and release harness locks 0.65 1.30 1.50 3.10 5.07 +t
8 Sequencer supplies dual pulse to fire barostatic
release unit cartridge backup) 0.66 1.31 1.51 3.11 5.08 +t

NOTES TO TABLE 5-2

1. All times are referenced to seat catapult initiation. To obtain times referenced to sequencer start
switches, subtract 0.18 sec.
2. Mode selection environmental sensing takes place between 0.245 sec and 0.305 sec (8 microprocessor
cycles).
3. In Mode 5 operation, altitude sensing recommences at 4.80 see, continuing until the seat falls to
18000 ft. ´t´ = time interval between 4.80 sec and falling to 18000 ft.
4. Mode decision parameter values are stored in the on-board NOVRAM.
5-36

Figure 5-35

5-37

Mode 5, all speeds - high altitude. The
drogue bridle remains connected until the seat has
descended to 18,000 feet. This arrangement
prevents prolonged exposure to low temperature
and thin air and enables the occupant to ride down
in the seat, controlled by the drogue and supplied
with emergency oxygen, to a more tolerable
altitude. The seat attitude will be horizontal with
the occupant facing down. When the seat has
descended to 18,000 feet, the drogue bridle is
released, the parachute deployment rocket motor
fires to deploy the personnel parachute, and the
harness release system operates to free the
occupant from the seat. The occupant is momentarily
held in the seat bucket by the sticker clips.

All modes. The personnel parachute, when
developed, lifts the occupant and survival kit from
the seat, pulling the sticker lugs from their clips.
This arrangement ensures that there is no
possibility of collision between seat and occupant
after separation.

ORGANIZATIONAL-LEVEL
MAINTENANCE

Learning Objective: Identify the organiza

tional-level maintenance philosophy for

the NACES system.

The primary task of maintenance technicians
is to keep the systems they are responsible for in
an operational condition. To achieve this goal,
the technician must be proficient in the
maintenance, removal, installation, testing, and
adjustment of system components. All of this
must be performed in accordance with applicable
technical publications. Most importantly, all these
functions must be done “safely.”

Ejection seats and associated components are
carefully designated, manufactured, and tested to
ensure dependable operation. This equipment

must function properly the first time. Malfunction
or failure to operate usually results in severe injury
or death to crew members. You must always use
the utmost care in maintaining escape system
equipment. Strict compliance with the
maintenance procedures presented in the MIMs
and the maintenance requirement cards (MRCs)
are mandatory and cannot be overemphasized.

NOTE: The information presented in this

chapter must NOT be used in place of

information provided in the MIMs.

With the increasing use of diverse and exotic
(composite) materials in the manufacture of
aircraft components, it is imperative that the
proper methods and materials be used to prevent
and/or correct corrosion. NAVAIR 13-1-36,

Organizational Maintenance with Illustrated Parts
Breakdown Manual, has been developed to
provide specific instructions and repair actions for
NACES seat components. It is an in-shop manual
written to provide the most complete and
technically correct information available to the
maintenance technician in one publication.
Remember, these manuals are your primary
source of maintenance information.

SUMMARY

The Martin-Baker Navy Aircrew Common
Ejection Seat (NACES) represents the very latest
in escape system technology. It has been designed
to provide maximum personnel survivability, a
high level of escape comfort, total reliability, and
ease of maintainability. For the first time in this
field, the power of the microchip has been
harnessed to give the seat the unique ability to
respond to the variable demands of an ejection
situation in a manner far more flexible than was
possible with earlier mechanically controlled seats.

5-38

APPENDIX I
GLOSSARY

ABO—Aviators breathing oxygen.
ACM—Air-cycle machine.
ACS—Air-conditioning system.
ADC—Air data computer.
AFC—Airframes change.
AIMD—Aircraft intermediate maintenance

department.
ALLOY—A metal that is a mixture of two or
more metals.
AMBIENT—Surrounding; adjacent to; next
to. For example, ambient conditions are physical
conditions of the immediate area such as ambient
temperature, ambient humidity, ambient pressure,
etc.
AN—Air Force—Navy (standard or specification).
ANOXIA—A complete lack of oxygen in the

blood stream.
APU—Auxiliary power unit.
BIT—Built-in tester.
BLEED AIR—Hot, high-pressure air, taken

from the compressor section of a jet engine.
BRU—Barastatic release unit.
CAD—Cartridge and cartridge-actuated

devices.
CAUTION—An operating procedure,
practice, etc., that if not strictly observed
could result in damage to or destruction of
equipment.

CCU—Component control unit.
CDI—Collateral duty inspector.
CELSIUS—A temperature scale using 0 as the

freezing point of water and 100 as the boiling
point. The scale has 100 equal divisions between
the 0 and 100 with each division designated a
degree. A reading is usually written in an
abbreviated form; for example, 75°C. This scale
was formerly known as the centigrade scale, but
it was renamed in recognition of Anders Celsius,
the Swedish astronomer who devised the scale.

CF3Br—The chemical symbol for trifluorobromomethane.
CNO—Chief of Naval Operations.
CONTAMINANT—An impurity such as
harmful foreign matter in a fluid.
DODIC—Department of Defence Information
Code.
DTG—Date-time group.
ECS—Environmental control systems.
EI—Engineering investigation.
FCDC—Flexible confined detonating cord.
FLSC—Flexible linear shaped charge.
GPM—gallons per minute.
Hg—Mercury.
IMA—Intermediate maintenance activity.
IMP—Initiator multi-purpose.
IPB—Illustrated parts breakdown.

AI-1

JULIAN DATE—The year and numerical day
of the year identified by four numeric characters.
The first character indicates the year, and the
remaining three characters specify the day of the
year. For example, 3030 indicates the 30th day
of 1983.

KINKED—A twist or curl, as in cable, wire,
or tubing, caused by its doubling or bending upon
itself.

LOX—Liquid oxygen.

LRU—Leg restraint unit.

MAINTENANCE—The function of retaining
material in or restoring it to a serviceable
condition.

MBEU—Martin-Baker Ejection Unit (seat).

MIM—Maintenance Instruction Manual.

MRC—Maintenance Requirement Card.

MULTIMETER—An instrument used for
measuring resistance, voltage, or amperage.

NACES—Naval aircrew escape system.

NADEP—Naval Aviation Depot.

NATOPS—Naval Air Training and Operating
Procedures Standardization.

NAVAIRSYSCOM—NAVAIR; NA (Naval
Air Systems Command).

NFO—Naval flight officer.

NOMENCLATURE—A system of names;
systematic naming.

NOTE—An operating procedure, condition,
etc., which, because of its importance, is essential
to highlight.

NSN—National stock number.

OPNAV—Office of the Chief of Naval
Operations.

OXIDATION—That process by which oxygen
unites with some other substance, causing rust or
corrosion.

PHYSIOLOGICAL—Of or pertaining to the
body.

PRESSURE—The amount of force distributed
over each unit of area. Pressure is expressed

-

in pounds per square inch (psi).

PSI—Pounds per square inch.

PSIA—Pounds per square inch absolute.

PSIG—Pounds per square inch gauge.

PSYCHOLOGICAL—Pertaining to, or derived
from the mind or emotions.

RAC—Rapid action change.

SAFETY WIRE/LOCKWIRE—A wire set
into a component to lock movable parts into a
safe, secure position.

SDLM—Standard depot-level maintenance.

SE—Support equipment. All the equipment
on the ground needed to support aircraft in a state
of readiness for flight. Formerly ground support
equipment (GSE).

SERVICING—The filling of an aircraft with
consumables such as fuel, oil, and compressed
gases to predetermined levels, pressure, quantities,
or weights.

SJU—Seat jettison unit.

SMDC—Shielded mild detonating cord.

SOLVENT—A liquid that dissolves other
substances.

SPCC—Ships Parts Control Center.

TENSION—A force or pressure exerting a
pull or resistance.

TM—Type maintenance.

T/M/S—Type/model/series.

TORQUE—A turning or twisting force.

TOXIC—Harmful, destructive, deadly; poisonous.

AI-2

VOLATILE LIQUIDS—Liquids that are
readily vaporizable at relatively low temperatures.
Explosive liquids.

WARNING—An operating procedure,
practice, etc., that if not followed correctly

could result in personal injury or loss or
life.

WORK—The transference of energy from one
body or system to another. That which is
accomplished by a force acting through a distance.

AI-3

APPENDIX II
REFERENCES

CHAPTER 1

Aviators Breathing Oxygen Surveillance Program and Field Guide,
AG-332AO-GYD-000, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C.,
October 1985.

General Use Cartridges and Cartridge-Actuated Devices (CADS) for Aircraft
and Associated Equipment, NAVAIR 11-100-1.1, Naval Air Systems
Command, Washington, D.C., September 1984.

Cartridges and Cartridge-Actuated Devices (CADS) for Unique Aircraft
Systems, NAVAIR 11-100-1.2, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington,
D.C., September 1984.

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2 (series),
Vol II, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C.,
January 1989.

NAVOSH Programs Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19B,
Department of the Navy, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations,
Washington, D.C., April 1989.

NAVAIROSH Requirements for the Shore Establishment, NAVAIR
A1-NASOH-SAF-0001P-5100.1, Naval Air Systems Command,
Washington, D.C., February 1986.

CHAPTER 2

F/A-18 Seat, Canopy, Survival Equipment, and Boarding Ladder,
A1-F18AC-120-100, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C.,
August 1988.

F/A-18 Seat, Canopy, Survival Equipment, and Boarding Ladder,
A1-F18AC-120-300, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C.,
August 1988.

General Use Cartridges and Cartridge-Actuated Devices for Aircraft and
Associated Equipment, NAVAIR 11-100-1.1, Chapter 1, Naval Air Systems
Command, Washington, D.C., September 1984.

Principles of Operation Environmental Control System, A1-F18AA-410-100,
Work Packages 008 00,012 00, and 013 00, Naval Air Systems Command,
Washington, D.C., March 1980.

AII-1

CHAPTER 3

P-3 Utility Systems, NAVAIR 01-75PAA-2-2.4, Naval Air Systems Command,
Washington, D.C., January 1988.

A-6 Environmental Control Systems, NAVAIR 01-85ADF-2-2.5.1, Naval Air
Systems Command, Washington, D.C., August 1988.

Escape and Survival Systems, NAVAIR 01-85ADF-2-2.4, Naval Air Systems
Command, Washington, D.C., May 1987.

Utility, Environmental and Personnel Survival Equipment, NAVAIR
01-85WBA-2-2.4, Section II, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington,
D.C., April 1981.

CHAPTER 4

Navy Electricity and Electronics Training Series, NAVEDTRA 172-03-00-85,
Module 3, Chapter 1, Naval Education and Training Program Development
Center, Pensacola, Fla., 1985. (The Naval Education and Training Program
Development Center became the Naval Education and Training Program
Management Support Activity on 1 Sep 1986.)

Principles of Operation Environmental Control System, NAVAIR
01-S3AAA-2-2.7, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C.,
September 1985.

Principles of Operation Propulsion System, NAVAIR 01-S3AAA-2-2.6, Work
Package 00408, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., April
1980.

Principles of Operation Airframe Group Systems, NAVAIR 01-S3AAA-2-2.2,
Work Packages 00307, 00308, 00309, and 013 13, Naval Air Systems
Command, Washington, D.C., July 1977.

S-3 Testing and Troubleshooting Environmental Control System, NAVAIR
01-S3AAA-2-3.7, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C.,
September 1985.

CHAPTER 5

Organization Maintenance With IPB Aircraft Ejection Seat SJU-17(V)1/A
and SJU-17(V)2/A, F/A-18C and F/A-18D Aircraft, NAVAIR 13-1-29,
Preliminary Technical Manual, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington,
D.C., April 1990.

NATOPS Flight Manual F/A-18C and F/A-18D Aircraft Ejection Seats,

Al-F18AE-NFM-000, Preliminary Technical Manual, Martin-Baker
Aircraft Company, Oxford, England, January 1990.

Description and Principles of Operation, Navy Aircrew Common Ejection
Seats (NACES) SJU-17(V)1/A and SJU-17(V)2/A, F/A-18C and F/A-18D
Aircraft, A1-F18AE-120-100, Preliminary Technical Manual, Martin-Baker
Aircraft Company, Oxford, England, January 1990.

Turnaround Check List, F/A-18C and F/A-18D Aircraft, A1-F18AEMRC-
100, Preliminary Technical Manual, Martin-Baker Aircraft
Company, Oxford, England, January 1990.

AII-2

INDEX

A

Air-conditioning systems, 4-1 to 4-19
air-conditioning systems, 4-9 to 4-19
cabin temperature control subsystem,

4-14 to 4-18
system components, 4-16 to 4-18
system operation, 4-14 to 4-16

environmental control panel, 4-18 to

4-19
air-conditioning switch, 4-19
cabin air temperature selector,

4-19
ram-air valve position selector,
4-18 to 4-19
refrigeration subsystem, 4-9 to

4-13
components, 4-10 to 4-14
system operation, 4-10

bleed-air system, 4-1 to 4-9
system components, 4-3 to 4-9
bleed-air flow control and
shutoff valve, 4-6 to 4-9
bleed-air shutoff valve, 4-5 to

4-6
bleed-air transmitter, 4-9
check valves, 4-6
engine bleed-air bypass and

shutoff valve, 4-6
high-stage bleed-air regulator
valve, 4-3 to 4-5
low-stage bleed-air check valve,
4-6

system operation, 4-1 to 4-3
APU bleed air, 4-3
engine bleed air, 4-1 to 4-3
SE ground start air, 4-3

B

Bleed-air system, 4-1 to 4-9
Bleed-air utility systems, 3-1 to 3-10

C

Cabin temperature control subsystem, 4-14 to
4-18
Canopy system, electrically operated, 2-1 to
2-13

D

Deice systems 3-1 to 3-6

E

Ejection seat cartridges and cartridge-actuated

devices (CAD), 1-8 to 1-11
Ejection seat check-outs, 1-7 to 1-8
Electrically operated canopy system, 2-1 to

2-13

canopy system, 2-1 to 2-7
miscellaneous components, 2-6 to 2-7
system components, 2-1 to 2-6

canopy, 2-1
canopy actuator, 2-1 to 2-3
canopy actuator manual drive

unit, 2-3 to 2-4
canopy contractors, 2-4
canopy control switches, 2-4
canopy locked switch, 2-4 to

2-6
canopy position switch, 2-6
canopy pressure seal, 2-1

emergency canopy jettison system, 2-10 to
2-13
components, 2-10 to 2-12
canopy jettison rocket motor,
2-11
canopy jettison rocket motor
initiators, 2-11
canopy jettison SMDC initiator,
2-10
canopy unlatch thruster and
cartridge, 2-11

INDEX-1

Electrically operated canopy system—Continued
emergency canopy jettison system—Continued
components—Continued
emergency escape disconnect
2-10 to 2-11
external canopy jettison handles
and cables, 2-10
internal canopy jettison lever,

2-10
one-way transfer valve, 2-10
SMDC/FCDC initiators, 2-11 to

2-12

procedures, 2-13
external canopy jettison, 2-13
internal canopy jettison, 2-13

normal operation, 2-7 to 2-10
backup manual control mode, 2-7 to
2-10

normal control mode, 2-7
Environmental control panel 4-18 to 4-19
Explosive safety devices (OPNAV 4790/26A),

installed, 1-12 to 1-13

G

Gaseous oxygen, 1-5 to 1-6
Glossary, AI-1 to AI-3

H

High-pressure air, 1-6 to 1-7

L

Liquid oxygen, 1-4 to 1-5

M

Management safety and supervision, 1-1 to

policy for safety program, 1-13

safety 1-1 to 1-4
enforcement, 1-3
environmental conditions, 1-2
equipment, 1-2 to 1-3
organization and administration of

a safety program, 1-2

Management safety and supervision—Continued
safety—Continued
planning for advanced base or

foward area operations, 1-3 to 1-4
safety education, 1-3
safety inspections, 1-3
tools, 1-2
work areas, 1-2

safety precautions for ejection seats and
explosive devices, 1-7 to 1-13
ejection seat cartridges and cartridge-

actuated devices (CAD), 1-8 to
1-11
CAD maintenance policy, 1-10

to 1-11
expiration date, 1-8 to 1-10
marking expiration dates, 1-10
reporting, 1-11
service life, 1-8
service-life change, 1-10
service-life extension, 1-10

ejection seat check-outs, 1-7 to 1-8
installed explosive safety devices
(OPNAV 4790/26A), 1-12 to 1-13
safety precautions for hazardous substances,
1-4 to 1-7
gaseous oxygen, 1-5 to 1-6
gaseous oxygen servicing trailer,
1-6
quality control requirements of

gaseous oxygen, 1-6
high-pressure air, 1-6 to 1-7
liquid oxygen, 1-4 to 1-5

description and properties of

liquid oxygen, 1-4 to 1-5
LOX contamination, 1-5
personnel, 1-5
physical properties of liquid

oxygen, 1-5

N

Navy Aircrew Common Ejection Seat

(NACES), 5-1 to 5-38
organizational-level maintenance, 5-38
system description and components, 5-1

to 5-38

component operation, 5-26 to 5-34
catapult assembly, 5-26
main beams assembly, 5-26 to

5-32
parachute canopy and drogue,
5-33 to 5-34

INDEX-2

Navy Aircrew Common Ejection Seat
(NACES)—Continued
system description and components—
Continued
component operation—Continued
seat bucket assembly, 5-32 to
5-33

seat survival kit, 5-34
ejection sequence, 5-34 to 5-35
functional description, 5-1 to 5-4
physical decryption, 5-4 to 5-26

catapult assembly, 5-4 to 5-7
main beams assembly, 5-7 to

5-16
parachute assembly, 5-24 to 5-25
seat bucket assembly, 5-16 to

5-23
seat survival kit assembly, 5-25
to 5-26
sequencer mode, 5-35 to 5-38
summary, 5-38

R

Rain removal system, 3-6 to 3-10
References, AII-1 to AII-2

Refrigeration subsystem, 4-9 to 4-13

S

Safety precautions for ejection seats and
explosive devices, 1-7 to 1-13
SMDC/FCDC initiators, 2-11 to 2-12

U

Utility systems, 3-1 to 3-10
bleed-air utility systems, 3-1 to 3-10
deice systems, 3-1 to 3-6
description and components, 3-1

to 3-5
maintenance, 3-6
operation, 3-5 to 3-6

rain removal system, 3-6 to 3-10
description and components, 3-7
to 3-9
system operation, 3-10

INDEX-3

(Ink)

Assignment Questions

Information: The text pages that you are to study are
provided at the beginning of the assignment questions.

ASSIGNMENT 1

Textbook Assignment:
“Management Safety and Supervision,” chapter 1, pages 1-1 through
1-13.

1-1.
What manual contains Navy enlisted
manpower and personnel
classifications and occupational
standards?

1. NAVPERS 18086
2. NAVPERS 18084-1
3. NAVPERS l8068
4. NAVPERS 18068-1
1-2.
Because of the inherent dangers
associated with duties, senior AME
personnel should be concerned with
which of the following safety
factors?

1.
Personnel safety
2. Equipment safety
3. Both l and 2 above
4. Shop/flight line safety
1-3.
The absence of which of the following
factors accounts for most accidents
with and around safety and survival
equipment?

1. Supervision and leadership only
2. Education and training only
3. Supervision and training only
4. Training, supervision, and
leadership
1-4.
Who has the basic responsibility to
promote and adhere to safety rules
and regulations?

1. The safety petty officer
2. The individual
3. The work center supervisor
4. The commanding officer
1-5.
It is only necessary to provide
safeguards, safety will take care of
itself.

1. True
2.
False
1-6. What does the term safety mean as
discussed in this course?

1.
Freedom from injury
2.
Freedom from danger
3.
Providing protection
4.
Freedom from risk
1-7.
What is the objective of the work
environment?

1. To operate with maximum
efficiency and safety
2. To operate with minimum
efficiency and waste
3.
To operate freely from
interruption and difficulty
4.
To eliminate hazards and provide
safeguards
1-8.
Which of the following is an
objective of supervision?

1.
To operate with minimum
efficiency and waste
2.
To operate free from
interruption and difficulty
3.
To operate with maximum
efficiency and safety
4.
Each of the above
1

1-9.
To establish a good safety record
requires a good safety program.

1.
True
2.
False
1-10.
Ninety-eight percent of all accidents
can be prevented. The remaining 2
percent are caused by what factor?

1.
Faulty equipment
2.
Poor supervision
3.
Natural elements
4.
Lack of communication
1-11.
How is enforcement defined as it
applies to safety?

1.
Reprimanding violators
2.
Monitoring a continuous safety
program
3.
Formulating rules and regulations
and a safety policy
1-12.
Supervisors must enforce safety rules
without fear or favor.

1.
True
2.
False
1-13. When determining the requirements for
forward or advance base operations,
you must consider what factors?

1. Safety, mission, and environment
only
2. Operating factors and facilities
only
3. Safety and mission only
4.
Safety, mission, environment,
operating factors, and facilities
1-14. According to its primary function, a
functional component is formed from
what total number of major groups?

1. 10
2. 11
3. 12
4. 13
1-15.
Which of the following items is one
of 300 standardized Navy units used
to build and operate advanced bases?

1.
Expenditure
2.
Functional
3.
Planning
4.
Logistic
1-16.
What is the major group designation
for aviation?

1. H
2. I
3. J
4. K
1-17.
What factors are included on the
list of requirements for the
performance of a specific task at an
advance base?

1.
A combination of material and
equipment only
2.
A combination of equipment and
personnel only
3.
A combination of equipment,
material, and/or personnel
4.
A combination of equipment,
supplies, and repair parts
1-18.
Other necessary repair parts,
supplies, and equipment may be
determined from the outfitting list
for what activity or action?

1.
The type aircraft and mission to
be supported
2.
The mission and weapon system to
be supported
3.
The type aircraft and weapon
system to be supported
4. All of the above
2

1-19.
What section of the Advanced Base and
Initial Outfitting List provides
complete information and data
requirements?

1.
Abridged and supply
2.
Index
3.
Outfitting and support
4.
Abridged and detailed outfitting
for functional components
1-20.
What instruction is used to implement
the NAVOSH program ashore?

1. OPNAVINST 4790.2E, Vol. IV
2. OPNAVINST 5100.19B, Vol. I
3. OPNAVINST 5100.19B, Vol. II
4. OPNAVINST 5100,23B, Vol. III
1-21.
An AME must deal with what three
major hazardous substances?

1.
CADs, LOX, rocket motors
2.
CADs, nitrogen, hot bleed air
3.
High-pressure air, CADs, LOX
4.
High-pressure air, LOX, gaseous
oxygen
1-22.
What are the two states of aviators
breathing oxygen?

1.
Type I Liquid, Type II Gaseous
2.
Type I Gaseous, Type II Gaseous
3.
Type I Liquid, Type II Liquid
4.
Type I Gaseous, Type II Liquid
1-23.
What publication should be used to
follow established safety procedures
for the handling of LOX?

1.
NAVAIR 06-03-501
2.
NAVAIR 06-30-501
3.
NAVAIR 06-03-509
4.
NAVAIR 06-30-509
1-24.
At atmospheric pressure, oxygen
exists as a solid at what
temperature below its melting point?

1.
-297°F
2.
-297°C
3.
-361°C
4.
-361°F
1-25.
Which of the following type
designators is classed as liquid
oxygen?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
1-26.
What is the critical temperature of
gaseous oxygen?

1.
-119°C
2.
-l83°c
3.
-297°C
4.
-281°C
1-27.
Gaseous oxygen will turn into a
liquid at atmospheric pressure by
raising the temperature above
-297°F.

1.
True
2.
False
1-28.
What is the critical pressure
required to liquify oxygen?

1.
736 psia
2.
736 psig
3.
736.5 psia
4.
736.3 psig
3

1-29. Gaseous oxygen will condense to a
liquid under which, if any, of the
following conditions?

1.
Temperatures above it’s critical
temperature
2.
Atmospheric pressure
3.
Pressure above it’s critical
pressure
4.
None of the above
1-30. What are the physical characteristics
of gaseous oxygen?

1.
Odorless, tasteless, colorless
2.
Pale blue fluid that flows like
water
3.
1.5 times heavier than air
4.
None of the above
1-31.
How much heavier is 1 gallon of
liquid oxygen than 1 gallon of water?

1.
1.10 lb
2.
1.12 lb
3.
1.13 lb
4.
1.14 lb
1-32.
What is the total weight of 1 gallon
of liquid oxygen?

1.
9.159 lb
2.
9.519 lb
3. 9.5 lb
4. 9.1 lb
1-33.
What are the two most important
factors a supervisor looks for in an
individual before assigning him/her
duties and responsibilities of
handling LOX?

1.
An understanding of safety and
LOX cart operation
2.
A current LOX license and
knowledge of LOX cart operation
3.
Consciousness, safety, and first
aid ability
4.
An understanding of safety and a
history of reliable performance
1-34.
How often should an aircraft LOX
converter system be sampled and
tested?

1.
Every 210 days
2.
Every 30 days
3.
AS soon as possible after a
report of in-flight odors by
aircrew personnel
4.
When the AME suspects the system
doesn’t smell right
1-35.
What contaminants must be prevented
from entering a LOX system during
the handling and transfer process?

1.
Water
2.
FOD
3.
Oil
4.
Atmospheric gases
1-36.
Reports concerning LOX contamination
will be submitted in accordance with
what OPNAVINST?

1.
3750.6
2.
4790.2
3.
5100.19
4.
8023.1
1-37.
Under which of the following
conditions must a LOX converter or
oxygen system be purged?

1.
If the system is left open to
the atmosphere
2.
Whenever contamination is
suspected
3.
When empty
4.
All of the above
1-38.
An aircraft oxygen system or LOX
converter must be purged in
accordance with what publications?

1.
OPNNAVINST 4790.2 and the MIMs
2.
OPNAVINST 3750.6 and the MIMs
3.
NAVAIR 01-LOX-6.4 and the MIMs
4.
NAVAIR 01-13-1-6.4 and/or the
MIMs
4

1-39.
What type of test is used for
station monitoring of aviators
gaseous breathing oxygen?

1. Liquid sample
2. Cryogenic
3. MICRO contamination
4. Sniff-odor
1-40.
The on-station procurement of
aviators gaseous breathing oxygen
must meet the requirements of what
publication?

1. OPNAVINST 4790.2
2. OPNAVINST 5100.19
3. NAVAIR 13-1-6.4
4. MIL-0-27210
1-41.
What publication will be used in the
performance of sample testing of
gaseous oxygen?

1.
MIL-0-27210
2.
A6-332AO-QYD-000
3.
NAVAIR 13-1-6.4
4.
NAVAIR 06-30-501
1-42.
Cylinders used for aviators gaseous
breathing oxygen that are found with
open valves and/or a positive
internal pressure of less than 25
psig should be tagged with what
information?

1. Empty
2. Needs filling
3. Dry before filling
4. Needs purging
1-43. Which of the following is a method
for providing high-pressure
compressed air?

1.
Portable cylinder
2.
Pump station air compressor
3.
Cascade-type cylinder
4.
Each of the above
1-44.
A malfunctioning pressure regulator
should be disconnected from the line
by what method?

1.
Removing the line
2.
Removing the regulator
3.
Closing the associated shut-off
valve
4.
Closing the associated bottle by
turning the bottle valve
1-45.
Under which, if any, of the
following circumstances, may an
unmarked or unidentified cartridge
be installed in an ejection seat?

1.
When directed by the commanding
officer
2.
When directed by the maintenance
officer
3.
Only in emergency situations
4.
None of the above
1-46. When must newly assigned personnel
receive an ejection seat check-out?

1.
Within 60 days of reporting
2.
Within 90 days of reporting
3.
Within 180 days of reporting
4.
Prior to performing any
maintenance tasks
1-47.
Each AME must receive a seat checkout
a minimum of how often?

1.
Once per assignment
2.
Once every 6 months
3.
Once every 9 months
4.
Once a year
5

1-48. What information must be listed on an
individual’s records for having
received a seat check-out?

1.
Date due, date given, signature
of individual
2.
Date due, date given, signature
of supervisor
3.
Date due, date given, signature
of AME supervisor
4.
Date due, date qiven, signature
of AME giving check-out
A. Description, Preparation
for Use, and Handling
Instructions, Aircrew
Escape Propulsion
System (AEPS) Devices
B.
General Use Cartridges
and Cartridge Actuated
Devices for Aircraft
and Associated
Equipment
C.
Ammunition Afloat
D.
Ammunition and
Explosives Ashore
Figure 1.--Ordnance Publications

IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-49 THROUQH 1-52,
SELECT THE PUBLICATION TITLE FROM FIGURE 1
THAT RELATES TO THE PUBLICATION NUMBER USED
AS THE QUESTION. USE EACH TITLE ONLY ONCE.

1-49.
NAVAIR 11-85-1.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1-50. OP 4.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1-51. OP 5.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1-52.
NAVAIR 11-100-1.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1-53.
The specific period of time that a
CAD is allowed to be used is known
as its

1.
shelf life
2.
service life
3.
installed life
4.
removed life
1-54.
What date must be checked prior to
installing a CAD into any system?

1.
Open
2.
Expiration
3.
Installed
4.
Manufacture
1-55.
To determine the service-life
expiration date of a CAD, what
date(s) must be computed?

1.
Aircraft life
2.
Shelf life
3.
Installed life
4.
Both 2 and 3 above
6

1-56.
If the date of manufacture of a CAD 1-61. Which of the following is an
is 0981 and the shelf life is 6 approved method for marking
years, what is the shelf-life expiration dates on CADs?
expiration date?

1. Paint
1. 0985
2. Scribe
2. 0986
3. Permanent ink
3. 0987
4. Electroetch
4.
0988
1-62. Which of the following dates must be
1-57.
To which of the following manuals marked on a CAD that is being
should you refer to determine the installed in an aircraft?
installed-life expiration date of a
CAD? 1. Installed

2. Shelf-life
1. NAVAIR 11-100-1
3. Container opened
2. NAVAIR 11-85-1
4. Installed-life
3. OP 4
4.
OP 5 1-63. A logbook entry for a CAD must be
made when which of the following
1-58.
To determine the installed-life events occurs?
expiration date, the installed-life
date is added to the date what action 1. Actuation
was performed on the container? 2. Replacement

3. Reinstallation
1. Opened
4. Refurbishment
2. Received from supply
3. Received from the manufacturer
1-64. A contingency service-life extension
4.
Sealed by the manufacturer for a CAD granted by the commanding
officer may not exceed what maximum
1-59.
If the installed life is 66 months, number of days?
what is the installed-life expiration
date of a CAD whose container was 1. 15
opened during 1183? 2. 30

3. 45
1. 0588
4. 60
2. 0688
3. 0589
1-65. For an additional service-life
4. 0689
extension beyond the contingency
extension, a message reply will be
1-60.
A hermetically sealed container was received from which of the following
opened on 15 March. Which of the activities?
following dates is used to compute
the expiration date? 1. NAVORDSTA

2. NAVAIRLANT
1. 1 January
3. NAVAIRSYSCOM
2. 1 March
4. NAVORDSYSCOM
3. 15 March
4. 31 March
7

1-66.
A change to NAVAIR 11-100-1 may 1-70. What OPNAVINST provides the
change the permanent service life of guidelines for reporting ordnance
CADs. Which of the following methods malfunctions, discrepancies, and
is used to change NAVAIR 11-100-1? accidents?

1.
Rapid action change 1. 8023.3
2.
Interim rapid action change 2. 5100.19
3.
Formal change 3. 4790.2
4.
Each of the above 4. 3750.6
1-67. What associated attachment 1-71. What OPNAV form is used in the
determines the service life of wire-aircraft logbook/AESR for recording
braid, Teflon®-lined hoses? all explosive safety devices?

1.
The initiator to which it is 1. 4790/21A
attached 2. 4790/25A
2.
The aircraft in which it is 3. 4790/26A
installed 4. 4790/26B
3.
The CAD to which it leads
4.
The rocket motor to which it 1 -72. The best assurance of personnel
leads safety lies in the safety education
of the people themselves.
1-68.
When should the hoses in an escape
system be inspected? 1. True

2. False
1.
At every phased inspection
2.
Upon removal of the seat
3.
After the hoses are disconnected
4.
All of the above
1-69.
For safety reasons, which of the
following devices will be installed
in CADs when they are removed from
the aircraft?

1.
Caps
2.
Plugs
3.
Safety pins
4.
All of the above
8

ASSIGNMENT 2

Textbook assiqnment 1:
“Electrically Operated Canopy System,” chapter 2, pages 2-1 through
2-13.

2-1. What function does the canopy serve
on the F/A-l8C?

1. Protection from the elements
2. Entry and exit for the cockpit
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. A means for total visibility
2-2.
The F/A-l8C canopy is normally
operated in which of the following
modes?

1. Pneumatic
2. Hydraulic
3. Electrical
4. Manual
2-3. Under normal conditions, the canopy
is controlled by which of the
following devices?

1. Internal canopy control switch
2. External canopy control switch
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Manual canopy control handle
2-4. When the canopy actuation control
system has failed, what method will
be used to open and Close the canopy?

1. Manual back-up mode
2. External electrical power
3. Internal electrical power
4. Utility battery power
2-5.
Which of the following components is
mounted on the canopy?

1. Canopy unlatch thruster
2. Canopy contactor
3. Canopy actuator
4. Canopy actuation link
2-6.
The canopy actuator, used to open
and close the canopy, is protected
by a thermal device that senses an
overheat condition.

1. True
2. False
2-7.
What total number of manual methods
are available to open and close the
canopy?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2-8.
What total number of canopy control
switches are provided for normal
electrical operation of the canopy?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
9

2-9.
What canopy contactor supplies power
to the close windings of the canopy
actuator motor?

1. Up
2. Down
3. Open
4. Close
2-10.
In what canopy latch retainer is the
canopy position switch mounted?

1. Number 1
2. Number 2
3. Number 3
4. Number 4
2-11.
What switch(es) must be depressed to
extinguish the master caution light?

1. Canopy position switch
2. Canopy locked switch
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Canopy caution switch
2-12.
How much power does the F/A-18
aircraft electrical system supply for
canopy operation?

1. 24 volts ac
2. 24 volts dc
3. 28 volts dc
4. 28 volts ac
2-13.
The air-cycle air-conditioning system
supplies cold air for the inflation
of the canopy pressure seal.

1. True
2. False
2-14.
Both canopy switch plungers must be
depressed within what maximum number
of seconds?

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20
2-15.
If you use the internal manual
canopy handle, what maximum number
of turns may be required to close
the canopy?

1. 70±1
2. 75±1
80±1

3.
4. 85±1
2-16.
What component transfers the
mechanical motion of the manual
drive unit to the canopy actuator?

1. Handle assembly
2. Actuator arm
3. Shaft assembly
4. Torque limiter
2-17.
What maximum number of turns may be
required to externally operate the
canopy actuator manual drive unit?

1. 5±1
2. l5±1
3. 25±1
35±1

4.
2-18.
What component prevents damage to
the actuator if excessive force is
applied in the manual back-up
control mode?

1. Handle assembly
2. Actuator arm
3. Shaft assembly
4. Torque limiter
2-19.
Which of the following handles will
cause the canopy to be jettisoned?

1. Internal jettison
2. External jettison
3. Ejection control
4. Each of the above
10

2-20.
What device(s) prevents the backflow
of an SMDC detonation from reaching
the seat components?

1. Emergency escape disconnect
2. One-way transfer valve
3. SMDC initiator
4. Both 2 and 3 above
2-21.
What component provides the ballistic
gas that fires the canopy jettison
rocket motor?

1. Canopy jettison SMDC initiator
2. Emergency escape disconnect
3. Canopy unlatch thruster
4. Canopy jettison FCDC initiator
2-22.
What component provides the vertical
thrust needed to separate the canopy
from the aircraft?

1. Canopy actuator
2. Rocket motor
3. Unlatch thruster
4. SMDC initiator
2-23.
Which of the following devices is
used to protect SMDCs?

1. Metallic sheath
2. Braid overwrap
3. Stainless steel tubing
4. Aluminum tubing
2-24. What is the approximate length of the
external jettison initiator cable?

1. 6 feet
2. 8 feet
3. 10 feet
4. 12 feet
2-25. What device prevents the internal
jettison handle from being squeezed
and pulled?

1. Shear pin
2. Safety pin
3. Shear wire
2-26.
The rocket motor initiators convert
ballistic-gas pressure to what
force?

1. Explosive canopy thrust
2. Explosive stimulus
3. Explosive energy
4. Mechanical energy
2-27.
What total number of SMDC initiators
are in the F-18C canopy jettison
system?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2-28.
How many methods are available to
jettison the canopy on the F-18C
aircraft?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2-29. On the F-18 aircraft, how much time
must elapse+before the thermal
protection device will reset after
sensing an overheat condition?

1. 15 seconds
2. 39 seconds
3. 60 seconds
4. 90 seconds
11

IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-30 THROUGH 2-35, IN ANSWERING QUESTION 2-35, REFER TO THE
REFER TO THE CANOPY JETTISON SYSTEM CANOPY JETTISON SYSTEM SCHEMATIC AT FIG. 2SCHEMATIC
AT FIG. 2-12 IN THE TEXT. SELECT 12 IN THE TEXT. SELECT FROM COLUMN B THE
FROM COLUMN B THE CORRECT MEANING OF THE CORRECT MEANING OF THE SYMBOL IN COLUMN A.

SYMBOLS IN COLUMN A.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
2-35. 1. Shielded
2-30. 1. Shielded mild

a

mild 1. 2
detonating

1. 5
detonating 2. 3 cord
2. 6
cord 3. 5
3. 7
4. 4 2. Flexible
4.
Both 6 and 7 2. Flexible confined
confined detonating
2-31. ------
detonating cord
cord

1. 5
3. Ballistic
2. 2 3.
Ballistic gas
3. 3
gas
4. 4
4. Structural
4. Structural pivot
2-32.
pivot point
point
1. 1 5. Mechanical

2. 2 5.
Mechanical linkage
3. 3
linkage
4. 4
6. Ejection
6. Ejection seat
2-33. seat
@

7. Emergency
1. 7 7.
Emergency escape
2. 6
escape sequencing
3. 5
sequencing system
4. 4
system
2-36. What component(s) act(s) as a solid
link during normal canopy operation?

2-34.

1. 1
2. 2
1. Canopy actuation connecting link
3. 3
2. Canopy actuator
4. 4
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Canopy unlatch thruster
12

2-37.
What maintenance code is displayed on
the nosewheel well DDI in the event
the canopy switches disagree?

1. 888
2. 889
3. 890
4. 898
2-38.
The electrical inputs supplied to the
canopy actuator are transformed into
what type energy?

1. Electrical
2. Direct power source
3. Mechanical motion
4. Logic circuit power
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-39 THROUGH 2-42,

REFER TO FIGURE 2-9 IN THE TEXT.

2-39. The canopy system will be removed
from the battery circuit when battery
voltage drops below

1. 19
Vac
2. 19±1 Vac
3. 19
Vdc
4. 19±1 Vdc
2-40. When is the left main landing gear
WOW relay #2 energized?

1. With weight on wheels
2. With external power applied
3. With weight off wheels
4. With battery power applied
2-41.
From what circuit breaker/relay panel
does the canopy control receive its
power?

1. 6
2. 2
3. 8
4. 4
2-42. What component houses the thermal
protection device?

1. Canopy control switch
2. Canopy actuator
3. #3 relay panel
4. #8 relay panel
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-43 THROUGH 2-49,
REFER TO FIGURE 2A, BELOW, AND FIGURE 2-9
IN THE TEXT. MATCH THE COMPONENT NAME IN
THE QUESTION WITH THE ALPHABETIC INDICATOR
IN FIGURE 2A.

Figure 2A.--Canopy Actuator

2-43. Canopy up limit switch--up contact.

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
2-44. Canopy actuator electrical ground.

1. A
2. C
3. E
4. G
13

2-45.
Canopy actuator field windings-open.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. F
2-46.
Canopy actuator brake winding.

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
2-47.
Canopy actuator thermal protection
device.

1. D
2. E
3. F
4. G
2-48.
Canopy up-travel-limit switch--not up
contact.

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
2-49.
Canopy actuator field windings-close.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. G
2-50.
How many systems and components are
related to the electrical canopy
system?

1.
Seven
2.
Nine
3.
Three
4.
Four
2-51.
Unlike the external canopy control
switch, the internal canopy control
switch has only two positions, open
and close.

1.
True
2.
False
IN ANSWERING QUESTION 2-52, REFER TO FIGURE
12-9 IN THE TEXT.

2-52.
Which of the following switches
is/are a double pole double throw
switch(es)?

1.
Canopy position switch
2.
Internal canopy control switch
3.
External canopy control switch
4.
Both 2 and 3 above
2-53.
Explosive stimulus produced by the
initiator is transferred through the
SMDC to what component?

1.
Canopy unlatch thruster
2.
Emergency escape disconnect
3.
Flexible confined detonating
cord
4.
Rocket motors
2-54.
What component prevents explosive
stimulus from continuing toward the
ejection seat components during
internal canopy jettison?

1.
FCDC
2.
Canopy unlatch thruster
3.
Emergency escape disconnect
4.
One way transfer valve
2-55.
What action does each rocket motor
produce to separate the canopy from
the aircraft?

1.
Thrust aft and up
2.
Sufficient burn time
3.
Vertical thrust
4.
Horizontal thrust
14

2-56.
During canopy jettison, the thruster
unlocks internally and forces the
canopy aft to disengage the canopy
latches.

1.
True
2.
False
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-57 THROUGH 2-60,
REFER TO FIGURE 2-9 IN THE TEXT. IDENTIFY
THE TYPE SWITCHES USED IN THE ELECTRICAL
CANOPY SYSTEM.

2-57.
Canopy locked switch.

1.
Single pole double throw
momentary contacts
2.
Single pole double throw
3.
Double pole double throw
momentary contacts
4.
Double pole double throw
2-58.
External canopy control switch.

1.
Double pole double throw
2.
Single pole three position
3.
Double pole double throw
momentary on
4.
Single pole double throw three
position
2-59.
Canopy up contactor.

1.
Single contact
2.
Momentary on
3.
Double contact
4.
None of the above
2-60.
Holding coil.

1.
Single pole double throw normal
or momentary contacts
2.
Single pole double throw
3.
Single pole single throw
4.
Single pole single throw normal
or momentary contacts on
15

ASSIGNMENT 3

Textbook Assignment: “Utility Systems,” chapter 3, page 3-1 through 3-10 and “Air-
Conditioning Systems,” chapter 4, pages 4-1 through
4-19.

3-l. Which of the following systems is 3-5 . What component causes the modulating
used to prevent ice from forming on valve to close when the pressure is
an aircraft? reduced on the modulating valve
diaphragm?

1. Anti-ice
2. Deice
1. Spring
3. Rain-removal
2. Solenoid
4. Defrost
3. Sensor
4. Spoon
3-2. The P-3 aircraft uses what source of
heat for its deicing system?
3-6. Which of the following conditions
will cause high temperature within

1. Electrical energy
the leading edge of the wing?
2. Bleed air
3. Hydraulic pumps
1. Solar radiation
4. Solar energy
2. Bleed-air leakage
3. Malfunctioning modulating valve
3-3. What total number of bleed-air 4. Both 2 and 3 above
shutoff valves are on the P-3
aircraft?
3-7. The fusalage bleed-air shutoff
valves are normally open during

1. Five
deicing operations.
2. Six
3. Three
1. True
4. Four
2. False
3-4. By what method are the deicing system 3-8. To perform a deicing leak test, the
modulating valves controlled? manifold pressure must reach what
minimum psi reading?

1. Pneumatic
2. Hydraulic
1. 40
3. Electric
2. 55
4. Thermostatic
3. 70
4. 85
16

3-9.
What should be the maximum number of
seconds required for the accept light
to Illuminate during a leak test?

1. 8
2. 12
3. 15
4. 20
3-10.
The P-3C wing deice system uses
bleed-air from what stage(s) of the
engine compressor?

1. 12th
2.
13th
3.
14th
4.
Both 2 and 3 above
3-11.
Where is the wing leading edge
pneumatic thermostat located?

1.
Wing leading edge tips
2.
Adjacent to each modulating valve
3.
Adjacent to shut-off valve
4.
Wing leading edge ducting
3-12.
What component allows pressure from
the modulating valve diaphragm to
vent?

1.
Leading edge temperature and
overheat circuit
2.
Overheat thermal switch
3.
Fuselage bleed-air shutoff valve
4.
Wing leading edge thermostat
3-13. At what temperature will the leading
edge caution hot light illuminate?

1.
210°F
2.
220°F
3.
230°F
4.
240°F
3-14.
The ducting overheat switches are
explosiveproof, thermally actuated
electrical switches with an integral
temperature sensing element.

1.
True
2.
False
3-15.
At what temperature will the
outboard leading edge overheat
warning switch open?

1.
205°F
2.
210°F
3.
215°F
4.
220°F
3-16.
Where is the rotary selector switch
located?

1.
Bleed-air coated panel
2.
Leading edge caution panel
3.
Ice control panel box
4.
Ice control protection panel
3-17.
What total number of duct overheat
thermal switches are installed in
the P-3C aircraft?

1. Three
2. Six
3. Nine
4. Twelve
3-18.
What will cause the OPEN light on
the ice control protection panel to
illuminate?

1. Failure of system components
2.
When the air-conditioning valve
is open
3. When the bleed-air valve opens
more than 2 degrees
4. When the modulating valve opens
more than 2 degrees
3-19.
Either one or both fuselage bleed-
air shutoff valves must be open to
direct air to the wing anti-icing
ducting?

1.
True
2.
False
17

3-20.
How many modulating valve control 3-25. The involvement of the AME 1 and

switches are located on the left side
AMEC in the maintenance of the

of the wing and empennage ice panel?
deicing system normally consists of

supervision only.

1.
One
2. Two
1. True
3. Three
2. False
4.
Four
3-26. The A-6 rain-removal system uses
3-21.
What switch(s) on the wing and bleed-air from what stage of the
empennage ice panel controls the engine compressor?
outboard modulating valve on the left
and right wings? 1. 12th

2.
13th
1. Inboard
3. 14th
2. Outboard
4. 15th
3.
Center
4.
Both 1 and 2 above 3-27. Upon loss of electrical power, the
nosewheel well bleed-air shutoff
3-22.
What switches will open when an valve will be in what position?
overheat is sensed at 175°F and
closes at 190°F? 1. Open

2.
Closed
1.
Leading edge overheat warning 3. In the last selected position
switches 4. In the manual position
2.
Wing overheat warning switches
only 3-28. What type of power is used to
3.
Fuselage overheat warning operate the rain-removal pressure-
switches only regulator shutoff valve?
4.
Wing and fuselage overheat
warning switches 1. Hydraulic
2. Pneumatic
3-23. During normal operation of the de-3. Electric

icing system, two of the four engine
4. Manual

bleed-air valves are open to supply

bleed-air to the cross-ship manifold?
3-29. What shutoff valve controls the

airflow from the rain-removal system

1. True
to the windshield?
2.
False
1. Nosewheel well bleed air
3-24. When should the deicing manifold
2. Rain-removal pressure regulator
system be tested for leakage? 3. Main-engine bleed air

4. Cabin bleed air
1. Before each flight
2. Before each engine turn
3-30. What total number of nozzles are on
3. During each flight
the A-6 windshield?
4. Both two and three above
1. 22
2. 24
3. 26
4. 28
18

3-31.
What rain-removal system component
mixes cool air with hot bleed air?

1.
Ejector
2.
Plenum
3.
Nozzle
4.
Coupler
3-32.
In what two positions may the
nosewheel well bleed-air switch be
placed?

1.
ON and OFF
2.
AUTO and ON
3.
AUTO and OFF
4.
MANUAL and OFF
3-33.
When the windshield switch is placed
in the AIR position, through what
circuit breaker does the dc voltage
flow?

1.
Anti-ice
2.
Air conditioning
3.
Rain-removal
4.
Windshield air
3-34.
The windshield air caution light
illuminates to indicate that the
windshield switch is in what
position?

1. ON
2. OFF
3. AUTO
4.AIR
3-35.
Where is the nosewheel well bleed-
air relay mounted for the rain-
removal system?

1. Air-conditioning panel
2. Aft bay relay box no. 3
3. Left main landing gear
4. Cockpit center console
3-36.
The windshield rain-removal warning
relay is a single throw, double pole
sealed relay?

1.
True
2.
False
3-37.
What are the three positions of the
windshield switch?

1.
ON, OFF, AUTO
2.
AUTO, MANUAL, OFF
3.
AIR, WASH, AUTO
4.
WASH, AIR, OFF
3-38.
Where is the rain-removal nozzle
assembly located?

1.
Beneath the pilot’s windshield
2.
Beneath the b/n’s windshield
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
Inside and under the radome next
to the windshield
3-39.
What switch controls the rain-
removal pressure-regulator shutoff
valve?

1.
Windshield wash
2.
Rain removal
3.
Windshield
4.
Air conditioning
3-40.
The rain-removal system removes rain
by directing a flow of heated air
across the windscreen. What is the
function of this heated air?

1.
It blows the water away
2.
It drys the windscreen, keeps it
dry
3.
It breaks the raindrops into
small particles
4.
It evaporates the raindrops
3-41.
The left main landing gear weighton-
wheels switch controls the
nosewheel and bleed-air relay?

1.
True
2.
False
19

3-42.
Under what condition(s) is the left
main landing gear weight-on-wheels
switch in the closed position?

1. When the strut is compressed
2.
When the strut is extended
3.
Neither of the above
3-43.
What stage of the compressor is the
primary source of bleed air for
operation of the ECS?

1.
1Oth
2.
12th
3.
14th
4.
16th
3-44.
Which of the following methods is
used to (a) control and (b) actuate
the bleed-air flow control and
shutoff valve?

1. (a) Electric (b) pneumatic
2. (a) Electric (b) electric
3. (a) Pneumatic (b) electric
4. (a) Pneumatic (b) pneumatic
3-45.
What air supply source(s) could be
used for engine starting and ground
operation of the air-conditioning
system?

1.
Ram air
2.
Ground start air
3.
APU air
4.
Both 2 and 3 above
3-46.
Which of the following conditions
will cause the bleed-air shutoff
valve to close?

1.
Overtemperature
2.
Overpressure
3.
Loss of electrical power
4.
All of the above
3-47. When operating the deicing system
with one engine secured, what valve
must be open to allow bleed air to
both sides of the aircraft?

1.
Bleed-air shutoff
2.
Bleed-air flow control and
shutoff
3.
Engine bleed-air bypass and
shutoff
4.
Crossover duct isolation check
3-48.
What valve will open because of a
sensed pressure drop through the ice
screen?

1.
Bleed-air shutoff
2.
Bleed-air flow control and
shutoff
3.
Engine bleed-air bypass and
shutoff
4.
Nonice and low-limit control
3-49.
What do the lights for the bleed-air
shutoff valves indicate?

1.
Switch position
2.
Valve position
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
High temperature
3-50.
In the event of a rupture in the
left or right manifold, what valve
will prevent overbleeding of the
engines?

1.
Bleed-air shutoff
2.
10th-stage check
3.
High-stage check
4.
Crossover duct isolation check
3-51.
What is the total number of basic
components in the refrigeration
subsystem?

1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 10
20

3-52.
What component, if any, is used to 3-57. When the air-conditioning switch is
check the oil level in the cooling OFF, the AUX vent switch is ON, and
turbine? the ram-air pressure does not meet

cabin exhaust fan requirements, what

1. Dip stick
valve will open?
2. Pressure gauge
3. Siqht gauge
1. Ram-air shutoff
4. None
2. Water separator bypass
3. Cabin outflow
3-53.
Which of the following conditions 4. Negative pressure relief
will cause the temperature indicator
probe in the fan inlet to trip? 3-58. The torque motor in the cabin

temperature control modulating valve

1. Obstruction of the ram-air inlet
converts electrical signals to what
duct type signals?
2. Collapse of the ram-air inlet
duct 1. Pneumatic
3. Temperature above 440°F
2. Mechanical
4. All of the above
3. Magnetic
4. Hydraulic
3-54.
What component allows air to pass
through the water separator if ice 3-59. What component provides the
has accumulated in the coalescer bag? controlling signal for the cabin

temperature control valve?

1. Water separator ice screen
2. Coalescer cone
1. Cabin air thermistors
3. Swirl vanes
2. Cabin air sensor
4. Water separate bypass valve
3. Cabin air temperature control
4. Cabin air high-temperature
3-54. What name is given to the air used to thermostat
cool the sonobuoy and weapons bays?
3-60. The opening of the cabin air high

1. Refrigerated
temperature limit thermostat
2. Partially cooled
internal valve causes what valve(s)
3. Cabin exhaust
to close?
4. Ram
1. Cabin temperature control valve
3-56.
What component prevents ram air from 2. Nonice and low-limit control
flooding the cabin when the aircraft valve
is flying at high speeds? 3. Both 1 and 2 above

4. Bleed-air flow control and
1. Outflow valve
shutoff valve
2. Cabin pressure regulator
3. Cabin air temperature control
4. Ram-air shutoff valve
21

3-61.
The cabin temperature control sensor
is designed to control the cabin
temperature within what number of
degrees of the selected temperature?

1. ±3
2. ±7
3. ±10
4. ±ll
3-62.
In the ram-air augmentation mode, the
ram-air shutoff valve regulates
downstream pressure to what fixed
differential above cabin pressure?

7.5±2

1.
2.
5.5±1
3.
3.0±.5
4.
4.0±l
3-63.
During manual operation, what switch
is used to position the ram-air
shutoff valve?

1.
Cabin pressurization
2.
Air-conditioning
3.
Auxiliary vent
4.
Temperature select
3-64.
When the air conditioning automatically
shuts down and the ram-air
shutoff valve is fully open, what
action, if any, must be taken to
restore normal operation?

1.
Secure the AUX VENT switch
2.
Turn the air-conditioning switch
to OFF and then to ON
3.
Turn the air-conditioning switch
to OFF, then to RESET, and then
to ON
4.
None
3-65.
What valve is controlled by the aux
vent switch?

1.
Cabin temperature modulating
valve
2.
Ram-air valve
3.
Aux-vent valve
4.
Cabin-outflow valve
3-66.
What is the function of the
environmental control panel?

1.
To control temperature
2.
To control pressurization
3.
To control anti-icing function
4.
All the above
3-67.
The ground-aircheck valve is a
split-flapper valve which is spring-
loaded to the open position until
engine start-up.

1. True
2. False
3-68.
What component(s) interconnect with
the ram-air high and low-temperature
limit switch circuitry?

1.
Auxiliary vent switch
2.
Bleed-air flow control valve and
ram-air shutoff switch
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
Aux bent valve and aux vent
switch
3-69.
With the cabin air temperature
selector in the automatic mode
within what temperature range can
the cabin temperature be selected?

1. 70°F to 90°F
2. 60°F to 80°F
3. 65°F to 85°F
4. 75°F to 95°F
3-70.
What is the temperature limit on the
cabin temperature control valve
while in the automatic mode?

1.
160°±5°F
2.
160°±15°F
3.
185°±5°F
4.
185°±15°F
22

3-71.
Icing of the water separator will 3-74. Water vapor condenses as ice
only occur at low altitudes where crystals when the turbine discharge
mass airflow and temperature are air drops below what maximum
relatively high. temperature

1.
True 1. 0°F
2.
False 2. 15°F
3. 32°F
3-72.
What component in the refrigeration 4. 40°F
pack low-limit control senses duct
air temperature and compares it with 3-75. In the bleed-air system, what
an internally generated reference? component senses the bleed-air

pressure in the duct upstream from

1.
Pneumatic pickups the bleed-air flow control and
2.
Inlet air sensor shutoff valve?
3.
Thermistor
4.
Temperature limit thermostat 1. Overtemperature pressure sensor
2.
Temperature control orifice
3-73.
What are the two physically separated 3. Temperature sensor
packages of the refrigeration 4. Pressure transmitter
subsystem?

1.
Refrigeration and air
conditioning
2.
Heating and air conditioning
3.
Refrigeration and cabin air/water
separator
4.
Air conditioning and
pressurization
23

ASSIGNMENT 4

Textbook Assignment:
“Navy Aircrew Common Ejection Seat (NACES),” chapter 5, pages 5-1
through 5-38.

4-1.
What configuration is used in the
NACES system to meet the exact
requirements of the crew station
designer?

1.
Reversible
2.
Flexible
3.
Standard
4.
State-of-the-art
4-2.
What does the acronym NACES mean?

1.
Navy Aircraft Ejection Seat
2.
Navy Aircrew Common Ejection Seat
3.
Naval Aircrew Escape System
4.
Naval Automatic Control Escape
System
4-3.
What type ejection seat is used in
the F/A-18C aircraft?

1.
SJU-17(V) 1/A
2.
SJU-17(V) 2/A
3.
SJU-17(V) 3/A
4.
SJU-17(V) 4/A
4-4.
The NACES may be used in either the
F/A-18C/D, F-14A or A-6E aircraft?

1.
True
2.
False
4-5.
Who is responsible for removing and
installing the ejection control
handle safety pin prior to and after
flight?

1.
Plane captain only
2.
Aircrew only
3.
Plane captain prior to and
aircrew after
4.
Aircrew prior to and plane
captain after
4-6.
The SJU-17(V)1/A ejection seat
provides escape capabilities within
which of the following parameters?

1.
All altitudes and airspeeds
2.
A maximum of 600 knots speed and
50,000 feet altitude
3.
Zero altitude and zero airspeed
4.
Both 2 and 3 above
4-7.
What is the primary purpose of the
barostatic release unit?

1.
To act as a backup in the event
of electronic sequencer failure
2.
To release the occupant from the
seat
3.
To release the personal
parachute at a determined
altitude
4.
To provide automatic operation
of the emergency restraint
release
24

4-8.
After seat ejection, the seat is 4-13. When the ejection seat is installed
stabilized and the forward speed is in the aircraft, what component
retarded by what component(s)? locks it to the catapult?

1. Personal parachute
1. Upper right main beam
2. Drogue parachute
2. Upper left main beam
3. Bridle system
3. Top latch plunger
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Barostatic release unit
4-9.
What component automatically controls 4-14. What barrels make up the catapult
drogue deployment, seat/man separa-ejection gun?
tion, and parachute deployment after

ejection?
1. Inner, outer only

2.
Inner, intermediate only
1. Barostatic release unit
3. Intermediate, outer only
2. Time release mechanism
4. Inner, intermediate, outer
3.
Drogue/bridle release system
4.
Multimode electronic sequencer 4-15. What crossbeam takes the full thrust
of the catapult during ejection?
4-10.
The NACES consists of what total
number of main assemblies? 1. Top crossbeam

2.
Center crossbeam
1. Six
3. Bottom crossbeam
2.
Five
3. Three 4-16.
What services do the seat bucket
4. Four
slippers provide?
4-11.
What is the primary purpose of the 1. Attachment points for the
catapult assembly? seatbucket to the mainbeam

2.
Damping out lateral movement
1.
To jettison the seat from the 3. Smooth movement of the seat
aircraft bucket
2.
To provide initial power for seat
ejection 4-17. What total number of slippers are
3.
To secure the seat to the attached to the guide rails of the
aircraft structure mainbeam assembly?
4.
Both 2 and 3 above
1.
Five
4-12.
The seat bucket assembly consists of 2. Six
the underseat rocket motor, lateral 3. Three
thrust motor, leg restraint snubbers, 4. Four
two pitot assemblies, shoulder

harness control lever, and pin 4-18. What handle is located on the left
puller. side of the seat bucket?

1. True
1. Safe/arm control
2. False
2. Seat height adjustment
3.
Shoulder harness control
4.
Manual override
25

4-19. What component on the NACES protects
the occupant in the event of rapid

forward deceleration?

1 . Static lanyard
2 . Spring loaded withdrawal plunger
3 9 Shoulder harness reel
4 a Shoulder harness strap quadrant
4-20. Which of the following is a charac-
teristic of the PRDM?

1 . Has a cylindrical body
2 8 Has a gas operated secondary
cartridge

3 . Is a sealed unit
4 . Each of the above
4-21. The PRDM primary cartridge is fired
by what means?

1 . Mechanically
2.Ballistically
3.Electrically
4 * Gas
4-22. The PRDM can be initiated by which of
the following means?

1 . Electronic sequencer
2 . Manual override system
3 0 Restraint release unit
4 I Each of the above
4-23. The parachute withdrawal line is
attached to the PDRM by what means?

1 . By scissor mechanism
2 * By a bolt and lock nut
3 . By a sliding stirrup
4 . By a spring-loaded quick release
pin
4-24. The electronic sequencer is mounted
on the NACES at what point?

1 * Across the mainbeam assembly
behind the seat bucket

2 . Across the mainbeam assembly
above the main parachute
3 8 Across the mainbeam assembly
below the main parachute

4 . Across the mainbeam assembly’s
lower aft end
4-25. Upon activation, the electronic
sequencer determines the mode of
ejection and supplies power to the
start switches?

1 . True
2 a False
4-26. Which of the following is a function
of the barostatic release unit
impulse cartridge?

1 6 Provides the necessary gas for
the restraint release assembly

2 . Provides the necessary gas
pressure to retract the capsule
Peg

3 . Provides the necessary gas to
prevent mechanical initiation
4-27. What component of the barostat
assembly prevents the delay
mechanism from operating at
altitudes in excess of barostat
ratings?

1 . Quick release pin
2 . Bellows device unit
3 . Peg engagement mechanism
4 . Diaphragm assembly
26

4-28.
What action or component supplies the
power source to fire the drogue
deployment catapult cartridge?

1.
Retraction of the capsule peg
2.
Gas pressure from the primary
initiators
3.
The delay mechanism firing pin
4.
The electrical inputs from the
electronic sequencer
4-29.
What is the primary function of the
drogue deployment catapult?

1.
To stabilize the ejection seat
2.
To rapidly deploy the drogue and
bridle assembly
3.
To prevent parachute entanglement
4.
To ensure a rapid escape from the
ejection seat
4-30.
Which of the following is a characteristic
of the drogue deployment
catapult assembly?

1.
Contains a two-piece telescope
piston
2.
Contains an enlarged upper end
3.
Is fitted with a drogue and
canister
4.
Each of the above
4-31.
The drogue deployment catapult is
mounted in what location on the
ejection seat?

1.
Aft RH aide of the seat structure
2.
Aft LH side of the upper cross
beam
3.
Outboard of the LH lower cross
beam
4.
Outboard of the RH main beam
4-32.
What size drogue chute is used in the
NACES?

1.
1.45 mm
2.
2.10 mm
3.
2.50 mm
4.
8.25 mm
4-33.
During the ejection sequence, what
component(s) supplies the gas
pressure to operate the barostatic
release unit delay mechanism?

1.
Primary initiators
2.
Multipurpose initiators
3.
Start switch assemblies
4.
Electronic sequencer
4-34.
Which of the following components
houses the start switches?

1.
Multipurpose initiator
2.
Static lanyard assembly
3.
Electronic sequencer
4-35.
During ejection, the start switches
provides what action?

1.
Battery power
2.
Initiation set-up
3.
Start signal to the electronic
sequencer
4.
Time-delay start time
4-36.
What is the primary purpose of the
pitot assemblies?

1.
To supply pressure to the start
switches for ejection
2.
To supply dynamic pressure
inputs to the electronic
sequencer
3.
To supply static base pressure
to the electronic sequencer
4-37.
Which of the following components
receives gas pressure from the upper
face of the RH ballistic manifold?

1.
Shoulder harness reel
2.
Parachute deployment rocket
motor
3.
Upper drogue bridle release
4.
Each of the above
27

4-38.
What total number of ballistic
manifolds is/are installed on the
NACES seat?

1. One
2. Two
3.
Three
4. Four
4-39.
What item or action secures the pitot
arms in the stowed or deployed
positions?

1.
Release piston
2.
Locking plunger
3.
Quick release pin
4.
Static gas pressure
4-40.
What total number of connectors
is/are present on the upper face of
the LH ballistic manifold?

1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four
4-41.
What is the primary purpose of the
thermal batteries?

1.
To supply power for seat operation
2.
To supply backup power for
sequencer operation
3.
To supply initial power for
sequencer operation
4.
To supply initial power for the
seawars
4-42.
Thermal batteries are mounted in each
of the main beam assemblies?

1.
True
2.
False
4-43.
What total number of propellant
tubes make up the underseat rocket
motor?

1.
Ten
2.
Thirteen
3.
Fifteen
4.
Seventeen
4-44.
What is the purpose of the lateral
thrust motor?

1.
Serves the same purpose as the
underseat rocket motor
2.
To provide additional boost to
underseat rocket motor
3.
Permits a divergent trajectory
to the ejected seat
4-45.
When the safe/arm handle is in the
safe position, the pilot sees the
handle as what color(s)?

1.
Yellow
2.
Black and yellow
3.
White
4.
Red
4-46.
What total number of connectors are
on the lower face of the RH ballistic
manifold assembly?

1.
Five
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four
4-47.
Forward movement of the leg
restraints is prevented by what
component?

1.
Seat bucket snubbers
2.
Leg restraint locks
3.
Leg restraint snubbers
4.
Leg restraint control lever
28

4-48.
What component restricts the operation
of the manual override handle
when the seat is installed in the
aircraft?

1.
Safety pin
2.
Thumb button
3.
Pin puller
4.
Safe/arm handle
4-49.
Operation of the manual override
handle simultaneously operates the
safe/armed handle to the safe
position?

1.
True
2.
False
4-50.
During ejection, what component(s)
provides the gas pressure to operate
the pin puller?

1.
The right hand seat initiator
only
2.
The left hand seat initiator only
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4-51.
Which of the following component(s)
are part of the lower harness release
mechanism?

1.
Leg restraint line locks
2.
Negative-g strap locks
3.
Lower harness locks
4.
Each of the above
4-52.
The parachute container houses which
of the following parachute?

1.
Controller drogue
2.
Main drogue
3.
Personnel and ribbon drogue
4-53.
In the NACES, what type drogue is
attached to the parachute crown
bridle apex?

1.
1.5m main
2.
1.5m personnel
3.
1.5m ribbon
4.
1.5m controller
4-54.
What force actuates the firing pin
in the catapult firing mechanism?

1.
Ballistic gas
2.
Mechanical
3.
Electrical inputs
4-55.
What maximum number of inches of
travel is required before the piston
head shears the three dowel screws
in the guide bushing?

1. 38
2. 42
3. 60
4. 72
4-56.
During ejection sequence, gas
pressure from what cartridge is used
to operate the shoulder harness
release cartridge?

1.
Multipurpose initiator
2.
Shoulder harness impulse
cartridge
3.
Left hand seat initiator
4.
Right hand seat initiator
4-57.
Which of the following forces causes
the secondary cartridge to face fire
the parachute deployment rocket
motor in the event of sequencer
failure?

1.
Ballistic gas from the harness
release unit cartridge
2.
Ballistic gas from the emergency
restraint release cartridge
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
Ballistic gas from the multipurpose
initiator cartridge
4-58.
After ejection has been initiated,
what source supplies the electronic
sequencer with electrical power?

1.
A single on-board thermal
battery
2.
Two on-board thermal batteries
3.
Internal aircraft power
4.
Start switches
29

4-59.
What source activates the multipurpose
initiators upon ejection?

1.
Ballistic gas pressure from
primary initiators
2.
Ballistic gas pressure from
thermal batteries
3.
Two pyrotechnic cartridges, after
42 inches of travel
4.
Electronic sequencer, 120
milliseconds after activation
4-60.
In the absence of a start switch
signal, the electronic sequencer
takes what action?

1.
It continues in the “wait” mode
2.
It activates automatically after
approximately 200 milliseconds
3.
It initiates the underseat rocket
motor
4.
It activates the start switch
4-61.
What is the total burn time of the
underseat rocket motor?

1.
200 milliseconds
2.
220 milliseconds
3.
250 milliseconds
4. 2 seconds
4-62.
Which of the following is/are the
critical actions for an electronic
sequencer?

1.
Sensing the seats altitude and
airspeed
2.
Choosing the appropriate timings
from a set of available sequences
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
Providing initial start-up from
the thermal batteries
4-63.
Speed and altitude are measured from
the sequencer by what three types of
sensors?

1.
Pitot pressure, altitude,
airspeed
2.
Pitot pressure, altitude, base
pressure,
3.
Pitot pressure, base pressure,
accelerometer
4.
Altitude, airspeed, attitude
4-64.
What total number of shielded cables
are used to transmit electrical
signals to and from the electronic
sequencer?

1.
Six
2.
Seven
3.
Eight
4.
Nine
4-65.
What is the total number of operational
ejection modes of the NACES?

1.
Five
2.
Seven
3.
Three
4.
Nine
30

IN COMPLETING ITEMS 4-66 THROUGH 4-70,
SELECT FROM COLUMN B THE AIRSPEED AND
ALTITUDE INFORMATION THAT APPLIES TO THE
MODE OF OPERATION IN COLUMN A. ITEMS IN
COLUMN B MAY BE USED MORE THAN ONCE.

A.
Modes B. Airspeeds/
Altitudes
4-66. Mode 1 1. Airspeed above 500
knots and altitude
4-67. Mode 2 below 8,000 feet

4-68. Mode 3 2. Altitude above
18,000 feet
4-69. Mode 4

3.
Altitude between
4-70.
Mode 5 8,000 and 18,000
feet

4.
Airspeed below 350
knots and altitude
below 8,000 feet
4-71.
During the ejection sequence, the
PDRM fires and withdraws the parachute
in its bag.

1.
True
2.
False
4-72.
During ejection and shortly after
the parachute starts to deploy, what
parachute part is jettisoned to
avoid entanglement and allow a clean
seat/man separation?

1.
Parachute extractor
2.
Drogue bridle
3.
Drogue chute
4.
Stabilizer chute
4-73.
What seat survival kit is used with
the NACES?

1. SKU-7/A
2. SKU-8/A
3. RSSK-7
4. RSSK-8
4-74. At what time during ejection will electronic sequencer timing begin?

1. When the ejection control handle is pulled
2. After approximately five inches of seat upward travel
3. Immediately after seat ejection
4. When the start switches close
4-75. What NAVAIR manual should be used to order repairable/nonrepairable parts for the NACES?

1. A1-F18AE-44
2. 01-F18AE-4-1
3. 01-13-1-36
4. 13-1-36